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Question 1:

Your company policies require encryption of sensitive data at rest. You are considering the possible options for protecting data while storing it at rest on an EBS data volume, attached to an EC2 instance.

Which of these options would allow you to encrypt your data at rest? (Choose three.)

A. Implement third party volume encryption tools

B. Implement SSL/TLS for all services running on the server

C. Encrypt data inside your applications before storing it on EBS

D. Encrypt data using native data encryption drivers at the file system level

E. Do nothing as EBS volumes are encrypted by default

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 2:

A customer is deploying an SSL enabled web application to AWS and would like to implement a separation of roles between the EC2 service administrators that are entitled to login to instances as well as making API calls and the security officers who will maintain and have exclusive access to the application\’s X.509 certificate that contains the private key.

A. Upload the certificate on an S3 bucket owned by the security officers and accessible only by EC2 Role of the web servers.

B. Configure the web servers to retrieve the certificate upon boot from an CloudHSM is managed by the security officers.

C. Configure system permissions on the web servers to restrict access to the certificate only to the authority security officers

D. Configure IAM policies authorizing access to the certificate store only to the security officers and terminate SSL on an ELB.

Correct Answer: D

You\’ll terminate the SSL at ELB. and the web request will get unencrypted to the EC2 instance, even if the certs are stored in S3, it has to be configured on the web servers or load balancers somehow, which becomes difficult if the keys are stored in S3. However, keeping the keys in the cert store and using IAM to restrict access gives a clear separation of concern between security officers and developers. Developer\’s personnel can still configure SSL on ELB without actually handling the keys.


Question 3:

You have recently joined a startup company building sensors to measure street noise and air quality in urban areas. The company has been running a pilot deployment of around 100 sensors for 3 months each sensor uploads 1KB of sensor

data every minute to a backend hosted on AWS.

During the pilot, you measured a peak or 10 IOPS on the database, and you stored an average of 3GB of sensor data per month in the database. The current deployment consists of a load-balanced auto scaled Ingestion layer using EC2

instances and a PostgreSQL RDS database with 500GB standard storage. The pilot is considered a success and your CEO has managed to get the attention or some potential investors. The business plan requires a deployment of at least

100K sensors which needs to be supported by the backend. You also need to store sensor data for at least two years to be able to compare year over year Improvements.

To secure funding, you have to make sure that the platform meets these requirements and leaves room for further scaling.

Which setup win meet the requirements?

A. Add an SQS queue to the ingestion layer to buffer writes to the RDS instance

B. Ingest data into a DynamoDB table and move old data to a Redshift cluster

C. Replace the RDS instance with a 6 node Redshift cluster with 96TB of storage

D. Keep the current architecture but upgrade RDS storage to 3TB and 10K provisioned IOPS

Correct Answer: C

The POC solution is being scaled up by 1000, which means it will require 72TB of Storage to retain 24 months\’ worth of data. This rules out RDS as a possible DB solution which leaves you with Redshift.

I believe DynamoDB is a more cost effective and scales better for ingest rather than using EC2 in an auto scaling group.

Also, this example solution from AWS is somewhat similar for reference.


Question 4:

A web company is looking to implement an intrusion detection and prevention system into their deployed VPC. This platform should have the ability to scale to thousands of instances running inside of the VPC.

How should they architect their solution to achieve these goals?

A. Configure an instance with monitoring software and the elastic network interface (ENI) set to promiscuous mode packet sniffing to see an traffic across the VPC.

B. Create a second VPC and route all traffic from the primary application VPC through the second VPC where the scalable virtualized IDS/IPS platform resides.

C. Configure servers running in the VPC using the host-based \’route\’ commands to send all traffic through the platform to a scalable virtualized IDS/IPS.

D. Configure each host with an agent that collects all network traffic and sends that traffic to the IDS/IPS platform for inspection.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

A company is storing data on Amazon Simple Storage Service (S3). The company\’s security policy mandates that data is encrypted at rest.

Which of the following methods can achieve this? (Choose three.)

A. Use Amazon S3 server-side encryption with AWS Key Management Service managed keys.

B. Use Amazon S3 server-side encryption with customer-provided keys.

C. Use Amazon S3 server-side encryption with EC2 key pair.

D. Use Amazon S3 bucket policies to restrict access to the data at rest.

E. Encrypt the data on the client-side before ingesting to Amazon S3 using their own master key.

F. Use SSL to encrypt the data while in transit to Amazon S3.

Correct Answer: ABE

Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/AmazonS3/latest/dev/UsingKMSEncryption.html


Question 6:

Your firm has uploaded a large amount of aerial image data to S3. In the past, in your on-premises environment, you used a dedicated group of servers to oaten process this data and used Rabbit MQ – An open source messaging system to get job information to the servers. Once processed the data would go to tape and be shipped offsite. Your manager told you to stay with the current design, and leverage AWS archival storage and messaging services to minimize cost.

Which is correct?

A. Use SQS for passing job messages use Cloud Watch alarms to terminate EC2 worker instances when they become idle. Once data is processed, change the storage class of the S3 objects to Reduced Redundancy Storage.

B. Setup Auto-Scaled workers triggered by queue depth that use spot instances to process messages in SOS Once data is processed, change the storage class of the S3 objects to Reduced Redundancy Storage.

C. Setup Auto-Scaled workers triggered by queue depth that use spot instances to process messages in SQS Once data is processed, change the storage class of the S3 objects to Glacier.

D. Use SNS to pass job messages use Cloud Watch alarms to terminate spot worker instances when they become idle. Once data is processed, change the storage class of the S3 object to Glacier.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

You\’ve been hired to enhance the overall security posture for a very large e-commerce site. They have a well architected multi-tier application running in a VPC that uses ELBs in front of both the web and the app tier with static assets served directly from S3. They are using a combination of RDS and DynamoDB for their dynamic data and then archiving nightly into S3 for further processing with EMR. They are concerned because they found questionable log entries and suspect someone is attempting to gain unauthorized access.

Which approach provides a cost effective scalable mitigation to this kind of attack?

A. Recommend that they lease space at a DirectConnect partner location and establish a 1G DirectConnect connection to their VPC they would then establish Internet connectivity into their space, filter the traffic in hardware Web Application Firewall (WAF). And then pass the traffic through the DirectConnect connection into their application running in their VPC.

B. Add previously identified hostile source IPs as an explicit INBOUND DENY NACL to the web tier subnet.

C. Add a WAF tier by creating a new ELB and an AutoScaling group of EC2 Instances running a host-based WAF. They would redirect Route 53 to resolve to the new WAF tier ELB. The WAF tier would their pass the traffic to the current web tier The web tier Security Groups would be updated to only allow traffic from the WAF tier Security Group

D. Remove all but TLS 1.2 from the web tier ELB and enable Advanced Protocol Filtering. This will enable the ELB itself to perform WAF functionality.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

Your company is in the process of developing a next generation pet collar that collects biometric information to assist families with promoting healthy lifestyles for their pets. Each collar will push 30kb of biometric data in JSON format every 2 seconds to a collection platform that will process and analyze the data providing health trending information back to the pet owners and veterinarians via a web portal. Management has tasked you to architect the collection platform ensuring the following requirements are met.

1.

Provide the ability for real-time analytics of the inbound biometric data

2.

Ensure processing of the biometric data is highly durable. Elastic and parallel

3.

The results of the analytic processing should be persisted for data mining

Which architecture outlined below win meet the initial requirements for the collection platform?

A. Utilize S3 to collect the inbound sensor data analyze the data from S3 with a daily scheduled Data Pipeline and save the results to a Redshift Cluster.

B. Utilize Amazon Kinesis to collect the inbound sensor data, analyze the data with Kinesis clients and save the results to a Redshift cluster using EMR.

C. Utilize SQS to collect the inbound sensor data analyze the data from SQS with Amazon Kinesis and save the results to a Microsoft SQL Server RDS instance.

D. Utilize EMR to collect the inbound sensor data, analyze the data from EUR with Amazon Kinesis and save me results to DynamoDB.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

You are designing Internet connectivity for your VPC. The Web servers must be available on the Internet. The application must have a highly available architecture.

Which alternatives should you consider? (Choose two.)

A. Configure a NAT instance in your VPC. Create a default route via the NAT instance and associate it with all subnets. Configure a DNS A record that points to the NAT instance public IP address.

B. Configure a CloudFront distribution and configure the origin to point to the private IP addresses of your Web servers. Configure a Route53 CNAME record to your CloudFront distribution.

C. Place all your web servers behind ELB. Configure a Route53 CNMIE to point to the ELB DNS name.

D. Assign EIPs to all web servers. Configure a Route53 record set with all EIPs, with health checks and DNS failover.

E. Configure ELB with an EIP. Place all your Web servers behind ELB. Configure a Route53 A record that points to the EIP.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 10:

Your team has a tomcat-based Java application you need to deploy into development, test and production environments. After some research, you opt to use Elastic Beanstalk due to its tight integration with your developer tools and RDS due to its ease of management. Your QA team lead points out that you need to roll a sanitized set of production data into your environment on a nightly basis. Similarly, other software teams in your org want access to that same restored data via their EC2 instances in your VPC.

The optimal setup for persistence and security that meets the above requirements would be the following.

A. Create your RDS instance as part of your Elastic Beanstalk definition and alter its security group to allow access to it from hosts in your application subnets.

B. Create your RDS instance separately and add its IP address to your application\’s DB connection strings in your code Alter its security group to allow access to it from hosts within your VPC\’s IP address block.

C. Create your RDS instance separately and pass its DNS name to your app\’s DB connection string as an environment variable. Create a security group for client machines and add it as a valid source for DB traffic to the security group of the RDS instance itself.

D. Create your RDS instance separately and pass its DNS name to your\’s DB connection string as an environment variable Alter its security group to allow access to It from hosts in your application subnets.

Correct Answer: A

Elastic Beanstalk provides support for running Amazon RDS instances in your Elastic Beanstalk environment. This works great for development and testing environments, but is not ideal for a production environment because it ties the lifecycle of the database instance to the lifecycle of your application\’s environment. Reference: http://docs.aws.amazon.com/elasticbeanstalk/latest/dg/AWSHowTo.RDS.html


Question 11:

Your company has an on-premises multi-tier PHP web application, which recently experienced downtime due to a large burst in web traffic due to a company announcement Over the coming days, you are expecting similar announcements to drive similar unpredictable bursts, and are looking to find ways to quickly improve your infrastructures ability to handle unexpected increases in traffic. The application currently consists of 2 tiers a web tier which consists of a load balancer and several Linux Apache web servers as well as a database tier which hosts a Linux server hosting a MySQL database.

Which scenario below will provide full site functionality, while helping to improve the ability of your application in the short timeframe required?

A. Failover environment: Create an S3 bucket and configure it for website hosting. Migrate your DNS to Route53 using zone file import, and leverage Route53 DNS failover to failover to the S3 hosted website.

B. Hybrid environment: Create an AMI, which can be used to launch web servers in EC2. Create an Auto Scaling group, which uses the AMI to scale the web tier based on incoming traffic. Leverage Elastic Load Balancing to balance traffic between on-premises web servers and those hosted in AWS.

C. Offload traffic from on-premises environment: Setup a CIoudFront distribution, and configure CloudFront to cache objects from a custom origin. Choose to customize your object cache behavior, and select a TTL that objects should exist in cache.

D. Migrate to AWS: Use VM Import/Export to quickly convert an on-premises web server to an AMI. Create an Auto Scaling group, which uses the imported AMI to scale the web tier based on incoming traffic. Create an RDS read replica and setup replication between the RDS instance and on-premises MySQL server to migrate the database.

Correct Answer: C

You can have CloudFront sit in front of your on-prem web environment, via a custom origin (the origin doesn\’t have to be in AWS). This would protect against unexpected bursts in traffic by letting CloudFront handle the traffic that it can out of cache, thus hopefully removing some of the load from your on-prem web servers.


Question 12:

You are implementing AWS Direct Connect. You intend to use AWS public service end points such as Amazon S3, across the AWS Direct Connect link. You want other Internet traffic to use your existing link to an Internet Service Provider.

What is the correct way to configure AWS Direct connect for access to services such as Amazon S3?

A. Configure a public Interface on your AWS Direct Connect link. Configure a static route via your AWS Direct Connect link that points to Amazon S3 Advertise a default route to AWS using BGP.

B. Create a private interface on your AWS Direct Connect link. Configure a static route via your AWS Direct connect link that points to Amazon S3 Configure specific routes to your network in your VPC.

C. Create a public interface on your AWS Direct Connect link. Redistribute BGP routes into your existing routing infrastructure; advertise specific routes for your network to AWS.

D. Create a private interface on your AWS Direct connect link. Redistribute BGP routes into your existing routing infrastructure and advertise a default route to AWS.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/directconnect/faqs/


Question 13:

Your application is using an ELB in front of an Auto Scaling group of web/application servers deployed across two AZs and a Multi-AZ RDS Instance for data persistence. The database CPU is often above 80% usage and 90% of I/O operations on the database are reads. To improve performance you recently added a single-node Memcached ElastiCache Cluster to cache frequent DB query results. In the next weeks the overall workload is expected to grow by 30%.

Do you need to change anything in the architecture to maintain the high availability or the application with the anticipated additional load? Why?

A. Yes, you should deploy two Memcached ElastiCache Clusters in different AZs because the RDS instance will not be able to handle the load if the cache node fails.

B. No, if the cache node fails you can always get the same data from the DB without having any availability impact.

C. No, if the cache node fails the automated ElastiCache node recovery feature will prevent any availability impact.

D. Yes, you should deploy the Memcached ElastiCache Cluster with two nodes in the same AZ as the RDS DB master instance to handle the load if one cache node fails.

Correct Answer: A

ElastiCache for Memcached The primary goal of caching is typically to offload reads from your database or other primary data source. In most apps, you have hot spots of data that are regularly queried, but only updated periodically. Think of the front page of a blog or news site, or the top 100 leaderboard in an online game. In this type of case, your app can receive dozens, hundreds, or even thousands of requests for the same data before it\’s updated again. Having your caching layer handle these queries has several advantages. First, it\’s considerably cheaper to add an in-memory cache than to scale up to a larger database cluster. Second, an in-memory cache is also easier to scale out, because it\’s easier to distribute an in-memory cache horizontally than a relational database. Last, a caching layer provides a request buffer in the event of a sudden spike in usage. If your app or game ends up on the front page of Reddit or the App Store, it\’s not unheard of to see a spike that is 10 to 100 times your normal application load. Even if you autoscale your application instances, a 10x request spike will likely make your database very unhappy. Let\’s focus on ElastiCache for Memcached first, because it is the best fit for a cachingfocused solution. We\’ll revisit Redis later in the paper, and weigh its advantages and disadvantages. Architecture with ElastiCache for Memcached When you deploy an ElastiCache Memcached cluster, it sits in your application as a separate tier alongside your database. As mentioned previously, Amazon ElastiCache does not directly communicate with your database tier, or indeed have any particular knowledge of your database. A simplified deployment for a web application looks something like this: In this architecture diagram, the Amazon EC2 application instances are in an Auto Scaling group, located behind a load balancer using Elastic Load Balancing, which distributes requests among the instances. As requests come into a given EC2 instance, that EC2 instance is responsible for communicating with ElastiCache and the database tier. For development purposes, you can begin with a single ElastiCache node to test your application, and then scale to additional cluster nodes by modifying the ElastiCache cluster. As you add additional cache nodes, the EC2 application instances are able to distribute cache keys across multiple ElastiCache nodes. The most common practice is to use client-side sharding to distribute keys across cache nodes, which we will discuss later in this paper.

When you launch an ElastiCache cluster, you can choose the Availability Zone(s) that the cluster lives in. For best performance, you should configure your cluster to use the same Availability Zones as your application servers. To launch an ElastiCache cluster in a specific Availability Zone, make sure to specify the Preferred Zone(s) option during cache cluster creation. The Availability Zones that you specify will be where ElastiCache will launch your cache nodes. We recommend that you select Spread Nodes Across Zones, which tells ElastiCache to distribute cache nodes across these zones as evenly as possible. This distribution will mitigate the impact of an Availability Zone disruption on your ElastiCache nodes. The trade-off is that some of the requests from your application to ElastiCache will go to a node in a different Availability Zone, meaning latency will be slightly higher. For more details, refer to Creating a Cache Cluster in the Amazon ElastiCache User Guide. As mentioned at the outset, ElastiCache can be coupled with a wide variety of databases. Here is an example architecture that uses Amazon DynamoDB instead of Amazon RDS and MySQL: This combination of DynamoDB and ElastiCache is very popular with mobile and game companies, because DynamoDB allows for higher write throughput at lower cost than traditional relational databases. In addition, DynamoDB uses a key-value access pattern similar to ElastiCache, which also simplifies the programming model. Instead of using relational SQL for the primary database but then key-value patterns for the cache, both the primary database and cache can be programmed similarly. In this architecture pattern, DynamoDB remains the source of truth for data, but application reads are offloaded to ElastiCache for a speed boost.


Question 14:

An ERP application is deployed across multiple AZs in a single region. In the event of failure, the Recovery Time Objective (RTO) must be less than 3 hours, and the Recovery Point Objective (RPO) must be 15 minutes. The customer realizes that data corruption occurred roughly 1.5 hours ago.

What DR strategy could be used to achieve this RTO and RPO in the event of this kind of failure?

A. Take hourly DB backups to S3, with transaction logs stored in S3 every 5 minutes.

B. Use synchronous database master-slave replication between two availability zones.

C. Take hourly DB backups to EC2 Instance store volumes with transaction logs stored In S3 every 5 minutes.

D. Take 15 minute DB backups stored In Glacier with transaction logs stored in S3 every 5 minutes.

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

You are designing the network infrastructure for an application server in Amazon VPC. Users will access all application instances from the Internet, as well as from an on-premises network. The on-premises network is connected to your VPC over an AWS Direct Connect link.

How would you design routing to meet the above requirements?

A. Configure a single routing table with a default route via the Internet gateway. Propagate a default route via BGP on the AWS Direct Connect customer router. Associate the routing table with all VPC subnets.

B. Configure a single routing table with a default route via the Internet gateway. Propagate specific routes for the on-premises networks via BGP on the AWS Direct Connect customer router. Associate the routing table with all VPC subnets.

C. Configure a single routing table with two default routes: on to the Internet via an Internet gateway, the other to the on-premises network via the VPN gateway. Use this routing table across all subnets in the VPC.

D. Configure two routing tables: on that has a default router via the Internet gateway, and other that has a default route via the VPN gateway. Associate both routing tables with each VPC subnet.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Both versions of GIF files support small file size, lossless compression and transparency. Which of the two GIF versions also supports animation and interlacing?

A. 87a

B. 87b

C. 89a

D. 89b

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

What is another name for the staging server?

A. Live server

B. Production server

C. Redundant server

D. Development server

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

The role of the project manager is to:

A. develop Web sites and manage Web site resources.

B. create the blueprint for the site and plan the navigation.

C. evaluate available resources and create specifications.

D. create Flash animations and user interfaces for Web applications.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

Egon is a member of a site development team hired by a skydiving center to establish a Web presence. Of the following specifications, which would best indicate the accessibility, interactivity and search features that Egon recommends?

A. Design specification

B. Content specification

C. Architecture specification

D. Functionality specification

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

You have included a check box on a registration Web page that users accessing your site can select to receive periodic bulk e-mail from your company. What must you include in your bulk e-mail messages to your subscribers?

A. An opt-out option to discontinue receiving the messages

B. An opt-in option to receive similar messages from related companies

C. A section in which recipients can provide feedback about the company

D. Coupons for product specials that can be printed and redeemed on future purchases

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Which of the following strategies is best for implementing bulk e-mailing to customers?

A. Buy an e-mail list from a vendor that sells a similar product.

B. Give customers the option to receive or to stop receiving bulk e-mail.

C. Send e-mail messages to all customer e-mail addresses collected at the time of purchase.

D. Generate a list of e-mail addresses from a directory listing of people who work in the same field as your company.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which of the following is a benefit of imported style sheets?

A. Imported style sheets override embedded styles.

B. Imported style sheets work with all older browsers.

C. Multiple style sheets can be applied using one style declaration.

D. Imported style sheets are the only way to override the default style of a browser.

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

You are designing a medical research site. The content will include medical terminology. When is it acceptable to use industry jargon?

A. When a casual tone is appropriate

B. When the audience will understand the terms

C. When the Web designer understands the jargon

D. When you want to demonstrate the superiority of your site

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What is the primary purpose of navigational elements within a Web site?

A. To organize a list of hyperlinks

B. To make it easy for users to visit other sites

C. To enable user movement throughout the site

D. To make it easy for users to reach the home page

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

You are using a style sheet.

Which of the following examples of code are best suited for cross-platform design?

A. font-family: bold, italics;

B. font-family=monotype, courier

C. font-family: Impact, Verdana, Geneva;

D. font-family: Helvetica, Arial, sans-serif;

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

In order to create two simultaneous moving objects, you would need at least:

A. one layer, one timeline and four keyframes.

B. one layer, two timelines and two keyframes.

C. two layers, one timeline and two keyframes.

D. two layers, one timeline and four keyframes.

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

Tomas wants to resize the same vector image on different pages of his Web site. Which Web graphics format would be ideal for this?

A. SVG

B. JPEG

C. GIF 87a

D. GIF 89a

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

SVG files can be defined as:

A. a bitmap photo format.

B. a cross-platform image-rendering plug-in.

C. a proprietary plug-in for displaying Flash files.

D. a way to describe two-dimensional graphics in XML.

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

Which of the following plug-ins would be used to view paper-based documents that cannot be easily re-created using XHTML?

A. Microsoft Fax Viewer

B. Word processor applications

C. Scalable Vector Graphics (SVG)

D. Portable Document Format (PDF)

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

George is developing an intranet site for his company.

How can he establish consistency for the structure and layout of all the pages, but leave decisions about the content of each page to the individual departments?

A. Use style guides.

B. Use inline frames.

C. Create a site map.

D. Create a site template.

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

From command mode in vi, what do you have to do to enter text?

A. Press e

B. Press i

C. Press k

D. Press w

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

Which statements about PAM are correct? (Choose 3.)

A. To enable authentication with PAM, you need a smart cart reader.

B. Each line in a PAM configuration file contains 6 columns plus optional arguments.

C. Configuration files of PAM modules can be found in /etc/pam.d/ and /etc/security/.

D. After the PAM configuration has been adjusted for an application, this application can be used by SSH.

E. The /etc/pam.d/other file contains a default configuration if no application-specific file is found in /etc/ pam.d/.

F. PAM creates a software level with defined interfaces between applications and the current authentication mechanism.

Correct Answer: CEF


Question 3:

You want to find out if files from the wget package were altered since they were installed. Which command will give you this information?

A. rpm -V wget

B. rpm -v wget

C. rpm -F wget

D. rpm -qf wget

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

In which file is the name resolution configured?

A. /etc/dns.conf

B. /etc/resolv.conf

C. /etc/HOSTNAME

D. /etc/nameservers

E. /etc/sysconfig/network/dns

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which command displays information about your hard drive and lets you manage certain hard drive parameters?

A. siga

B. sitar

C. fdisk

D. lspci

E. iostat

F. hwinfo

G. hdparm

Correct Answer: G


Question 6:

What is the correct syntax for mounting the second partition of the first SCSI hard disk?

A. mount /mnt /dev/hda2

B. mount /dev/hda2 /mnt

C. mount /dev/sdb1 /mnt

D. mount /mnt /dev/sdb1

E. mount /dev/sda2 /mnt

F. mount /mnt /dev/sda2

Correct Answer: E


Question 7:

You want to add user tux to the southpole group without changing his primary group membership. Which command do you use for this purpose?

A. useradd -g southpole tux

B. usermod -g southpole tux

C. groupadd -A tux southpole

D. groupmod -A tux southpole

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

You would like to run command2 only if command1 did not complete successfully.

Which command accomplishes this task?

A. command1 ;; command2

B. command1 || command2

C. command1 >> command2

D. command1 andand command2

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

Which statements about the Linux boot process are correct? (Choose 3.)

A. The BIOS starts the kernel.

B. The initrd decompresses itself.

C. The kernel looks for and mounts the initrd.

D. The boot manager starts the init process.

E. linuxrc loads the modules to mount the root file system.

F. The boot manager loads the kernel and initrd into the memory.

Correct Answer: CEF


Question 10:

The GRUB configuration file (/boot/grub/menu.lst) has a global section followed by sections for each operating system. Which options do you have to specify for each Linux operating system? (Choose 3.)

A. title

B. color

C. initrd

D. kernel

E. timeout

F. gfxmenu

G. message

Correct Answer: ACD


Question 11:

The /backup/snapshot was changed to the /backup/backup_monday.tgz archive. Which command will now write new or modified files below /home?

A. tar -czf -g /backup/snapshot /backup/backup_monday.tgz /home

B. tar -tz -g /backup/snapshot -f /backup/backup_monday.tgz /home

C. tar -cz -g /backup/snapshot -f /backup/backup_monday.tgz /home

D. tar -cz -newer /backup/snapshot -f /backup/backup_monday.tgz /home

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

How large is an inode?

A. 256 bits

B. 64 Kbytes

C. 128 bytes

D. 1 Mbyte

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

In a terminal window, which command displays the name of the directory you are currently in?

A. dir

B. pwd

C. where

D. current-dir

Correct Answer: B


Question 14:

You want to redirect both output and error messages of the find command to the find-output file. Which command accomplishes this task?

A. find /etc -name “*conf” 2>andfind-output

B. find /etc -name “*conf” 2 find-output

C. find /etc -name “*conf” > find-output 2>and1

D. find /etc -name “*conf” > find-output 2>find-output

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

You want to redirect the output of the ls command to the ls-output file which already exists. The output should be appended to the file; it should not overwrite the existing content. Which command accomplishes this task?

A. ls > ls-output

B. ls : ls-output

C. ls >> ls-output

D. ls andand ls-output

Correct Answer: C


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Question 1:

On the ProxySG, can more than one authentication realm be active at any given time?

A. No

B. Yes

C. Only in explicit mode

D. Only in transparent mode

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

In which type of physical deployment does a ProxySG have potential visibility to all traffic through the use of a device such as a WCCP-capable router or a Layer 4 switch?

A. Transparent

B. None of these answers

C. Explicit

D. Virtually Inline

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

How does the Management Console perform commands on the ProxySG?

A. None of these answers

B. By using proprietary APIs to perform function calls on the ProxySG

C. By using Content Policy Language to control the ProxySG

D. By generating the appropriate CLI commands and executing them

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A newly-shipped physical ProxySG contains what type of license?

A. Trial

B. Demo

C. Permanent

D. Provisional

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://origin-symwisedownload.symantec.com/resources/webguides/proxysg/6.2/acceleration_webguide/Content/02Tasks/Maintenance/view_license_information_ta.htm


Question 5:

When the ProxySG uses a virtual URL for user authentication, what must the virtual URL point to?

A. The IP address of the origin content server

B. A hostname that the user agent can DNS-resolve to an IP address

C. None of these answers

D. The IP address of the ProxySG

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://support.symantec.com/en_US/article.TECH243088.html


Question 6:

Why is Kerberos performance better than NTLM?

A. It uses less encryption

B. None of these answers

C. Only two round trips are required between the browser and an authentication server

D. It works with later versions of Microsoft Windows

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://origin-symwisedownload.symantec.com/resources/webguides/proxysg/certification/authentication_webguide/Content/Topics/Authentication/Concepts/IWA_auth_protocols_co.htm


Question 7:

Where is the WebFilter database stored? (Choose two.)

A. On clients\’ mobile devices

B. On a properly licensed ProxySG

C. At several data centers around the world

D. At third-party data centers

Correct Answer: BC


Question 8:

Which of the following is not a VPM trigger object?

A. Time

B. Source

C. Destination

D. Service

E. Action

Correct Answer: E


Question 9:

SGOS is based on which other operating system?

A. Unix

B. VxWorks

C. pSOS

D. None of these answers

E. Windows

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

What client-side technology does the Management Console use?

A. Ajax

B. HTML5

C. Flash

D. Java applets

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

When uploading access logs, which type of upload uses the least disk space on the ProxySG?

A. Continuous

B. Periodic

C. Weekly

D. Intermittent

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

A local database can be used as an alternative of what?

A. The ProxySG does not support local databases

B. Either an on-box or off-box database

C. An off-box WebFilter database only

D. An on-box database only

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

What does the SSL Proxy do by default?

A. Blocks encrypted traffic

B. Scans traffic for malware

C. Tunnels all HTTPS traffic

D. Intercepts all HTTPS traffic

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://wikileaks.org/spyfiles/files/0/219_BLUECOAT-SGOS_5.3.x_SSL_Proxy_Reference_Guide.pdf


Question 14:

Why is authentication using Basic credentials typically used over HTTPS?

A. Username and password are base-64 encoded

B. No session identifier is required

C. No cookies are required

D. No other credentials are compatible with HTTPS

Correct Answer: A


Question 15:

Of the methods that the ProxySG uses to detect file type, which one is usually the most accurate?

A. Checking the HTTP content type (or MIME type)

B. Performing an anti-virus scan

C. Detecting apparent data type

D. Checking the file extension

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

A DevOps administrator is automating an existing software development workflow. The administrator wants to ensure that prior to any new code going into production, tests confirm the new code does not negatively impact existing automation activities.

Which of the following testing techniques would be BEST to use?

A. Usability testing

B. Regression testing

C. Vulnerability testing

D. Penetration testing

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.softwaretestinghelp.com/regression-testing-tools-and-methods/


Question 2:

A marketing team is using a SaaS-based service to send emails to large groups of potential customers. The internally managed CRM system is configured to generate a list of target customers automatically on a weekly basis, and then use that list to send emails to each customer as part of a marketing campaign. Last week, the first email campaign sent emails successfully to 3,000 potential customers. This week, the email campaign attempted to send out 50,000 emails, but only 10,000 were sent.

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for not sending all the emails?

A. API request limit

B. Incorrect billing account

C. Misconfigured auto-scaling

D. Bandwidth limitation

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://developers.google.com/analytics/devguides/config/mgmt/v3/limits-quotas


Question 3:

An organization requires the following to be achieved between the finance and marketing departments:

1.

Allow HTTPS/HTTP.

2.

Disable FTP and SMB traffic.

Which of the following is the MOST suitable method to meet the requirements?

A. Implement an ADC solution to load balance the VLAN traffic

B. Configure an ACL between the VLANs

C. Implement 802.1X in these VLANs

D. Configure on-demand routing between the VLANs

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

A systems administrator is building a new virtualization cluster. The cluster consists of five virtual hosts, which each have flash and spinning disks. This storage is shared among all the virtual hosts, where a virtual machine running on one host may store data on another host.

This is an example of:

A. a storage area network

B. a network file system

C. hyperconverged storage

D. thick-provisioned disks

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

A company is utilizing a private cloud solution that is hosted within its datacenter. The company wants to launch a new business application, which requires the resources below:

The current private cloud has 30 vCPUs and 512GB RAM available. The company is looking for a quick solution to launch this application, with expected maximum sessions to be close to 24,000 at launch and an average of approximately 5,000 sessions.

Which of the following solutions would help the company accommodate the new workload in the SHORTEST amount of time and with the maximum financial benefits?

A. Configure auto-scaling within the private cloud

B. Set up cloud bursting for the additional resources

C. Migrate all workloads to a public cloud provider

D. Add more capacity to the private cloud

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

A systems administrator recently upgraded the processors in a web application host. Upon the next login, the administrator sees a new alert regarding the license being out of compliance. Which of the following licensing models is the application MOST likely using?

A. Per device

B. Per user

C. Core-based

D. Volume-based

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://download.microsoft.com/download/3/d/4/3d42bdc2-6725-4b29-b75a-a5b04179958b/percorelicensing_definitions_vlbrief.pdf


Question 7:

A systems administrator is informed that a database server containing PHI and PII is unencrypted. The environment does not support VM encryption, nor does it have a key management system. The server needs to be able to be rebooted for patching without manual intervention.

Which of the following will BEST resolve this issue?

A. Ensure all database queries are encrypted

B. Create an IPSec tunnel between the database server and its clients

C. Enable protocol encryption between the storage and the hypervisor

D. Enable volume encryption on the storage

E. Enable OS encryption

Correct Answer: C


Question 8:

An OS administrator is reporting slow storage throughput on a few VMs in a private IaaS cloud. Performance graphs on the host show no increase in CPU or memory. However, performance graphs on the storage show a decrease of throughput in both IOPS and MBps but not much increase in latency. There is no increase in workload, and latency is stable on the NFS storage arrays that are used by those VMs.

Which of the following should be verified NEXT?

A. Application

B. SAN

C. VM GPU settings

D. Network

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

A systems administrator is configuring RAID for a new server. This server will host files for users and replicate to an identical server. While redundancy is necessary, the most important need is to maximize storage. Which of the following RAID types should the administrator choose?

A. 5

B. 6

C. 10

D. 50

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://mysupport.netapp.com/NOW/public/eseries/sam_archive1150/index.html#page/GUID-8538272A-B802-49D9-9EA2-96C82DAD26A2/GUID-1BF9A33B-C3A1-487C-B8D8-5F2C14E3ED2E.html


Question 10:

Which of the following will mitigate the risk of users who have access to an instance modifying the system configurations?

A. Implement whole-disk encryption

B. Deploy the latest OS patches

C. Deploy an anti-malware solution

D. Implement mandatory access control

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

A systems administrator recently deployed a VDI solution in a cloud environment; however, users are now experiencing poor rendering performance when trying to display 3-D content on their virtual desktops, especially at peak times. Which of the following actions will MOST likely solve this issue?

A. Update the quest graphics drivers from the official repository

B. Add more vGPU licenses to the host

C. Instruct users to access virtual workstations only on the VLAN

D. Select vGPU profiles with higher video RAM

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/desktop-virtualization-solutions-vmware-horizon-view/whitepaper-c11-741606.pdf


Question 12:

An administrator is performing an in-place upgrade on a quest VM operating system.

Which of the following can be performed as a quick method to roll back to an earlier state, if necessary?

A. A configuration file backup

B. A full backup of the database

C. A differential backup

D. A VM-level snapshot

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://cloud.google.com/compute/docs/tutorials/performing-in-place-upgrade-windows-server


Question 13:

A systems administrator is configuring a storage array.

Which of the following should the administrator configure to set up mirroring on this array?

A. RAID 0

B. RAID 1

C. RAID 5

D. RAID 6

Correct Answer: B

Reference: https://www.enterprisestorageforum.com/storage-management/raid-levels.html


Question 14:

A company has developed a cloud-ready application. Before deployment, an administrator needs to select a deployment technology that provides a high level of portability and is lightweight in terms of footprint and resource requirements. Which of the following solutions will be BEST to help the administrator achieve the requirements?

A. Containers

B. Infrastructure as code

C. Desktop virtualization

D. Virtual machines

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://blog.netapp.com/blogs/containers-vs-vms/


Question 15:

A global web-hosting company is concerned about the availability of its platform during an upcoming event. Web traffic is forecasted to increase substantially during the next week. The site contains mainly static content. Which of the following solutions will assist with the increased workload?

A. DoH

B. WAF

C. IPS

D. CDN

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.globaldots.com/content-delivery-network-explained


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Question 1:

Examine these Data Pump commands to import objects to non-existent users hr1 and oe1.

S expdp system/manager Schemas =hr,oe directory =EXP_ DIR include = table

$ impdp system/manager Schemas = hr1,oe1 Directory = EXP_DIR Dumpfile = export.dat Remap_schema =hr:hr1,oe :oe1

What would be achieved by running the above commands?

A. expdp will fail because no path has been defined for the dumpfile.

B. expdp will succeed but Impdp will fail because users do not exist.

C. impdp will create two users called hrl and oe1 and import all objects to the new schemas

D. impdp will create two users called hrl and oe1 and import tables owned by hr and oe schemas to hr1 and oe1 schemas, respectively.

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

User SCOTT wants to back out the transactions on the REGIONS table in his schema. As a DBA, which commands must you execute to enable SCOTT to flash back the transactions?

A. ALTER DATABASE FLASHBACK ON;

B. GRANT SELECT ANY TRANSACTION TO scott;

C. GRANT EXECUTE ON dbms_flashback TO scott;

D. ALTER DATABASE ADD SUPPLEMENTAL LOG DATA;

E. ALTER TABLESPACE undots1 RETENTION GUARANTEE;

F. ALTER DATABASE ADD SUPPLEMENTAL LOG DATA (PRIMARY KEY) COLUMNS;

Correct Answer: BCDF


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You are in the process of creating a Virtual Private Catalog (VPC) in your Oracle Database l1g database .The PROD1, PROD2, and PROD3 Oracle Database 10g databases are registered in the base recovery catalog. The database user

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RMAN> CONNECT CATALOG vpc1/[email protected];

RMAN> SQL “EXEC catowner.dbms_rcvcat.create_virtual_catalog;”

What is the outcome of the above commands?

A. They execute and create a virtual catalog for pre-Oracle 11g clients.

B. They produce an error because PROD1 and PROD2 databases belong to the older version.

C. They produce an error because you need to connect as CATOWNER to execute this packaged procedure.

D. They produce an error because you need to connect to the target database to execute this packaged procedure.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Which two of the listed requirements would be classified as performance non-functional requirements? (Choose two.)

A. The vSphere platform must be able to provide a recovery time objective of 30 minutes

B. The vSphere platform must be able to provide a minimum throughput of 400 MB/s

C. The vSphere platform must be able to provide N 1 redundancy

D. The vSphere platform must be able to provide a maximum read latency of 15 ms

E. The vSphere platform must be able to provide a service-level agreement (SLA) of 99,9%

Correct Answer: AD


Question 2:

An architect will be taking over control of a former Linux server fleet and repurposing the hardware into a new vSphere cluster. The current environment is already connected to the network but the hosts do not have any local disks. Since the fleet hardware is uniform, the architect can use a single ESXi image. All hosts within the cluster have the same CPU and memory capacity.

Which ESXi deployment method should the architect use?

A. Stateless cached vSphere Auto Deploy

B. Stateless vSphere Auto Deploy

C. Manual install of each ESXi host with an image from USB

D. Stateful vSphere Auto Deploy

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

An architect is finalizing the design for a new vCenter Server High Availability deployment.

What is one thing the architect must document in the design?

A. The load balancing algorithm used by the Management Distributed Virtual Switches (DVS)

B. The SSH configuration settings for the vCenter Server\’s active node

C. The vCenter Management Network IPv4 addresses for the witness node vCenter Server

D. The details of each of the vCenter Server licenses for active, passive and witness nodes

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

An architect is considering placement of virtual machines within an existing VMware software-defined data center (SDDC).

During the discovery phase, the following information is documented:

Cluster One Six ESXi hosts vSphere HA with host failures cluster tolerates = 1 Proactive HA is enabled and set to automated Fully Automated vSphere DRS Transparent Page Sharing (TPS) is enabled

Cluster Two Eight ESXi hosts vSphere HA with host failures cluster tolerates = 1 Proactive HA is disabled Partially Automated vSphere DRS Transparent Page Sharing (TPS) is disabled Cluster Three Three ESXi hosts vSphere HA with admission control is disabled Proactive HA is not supported Transparent Page Sharing (TPS) is disabled

Virtual Machine Resource Profile 1 Memory sharing techniques should not be used Virtual machines should be automatically restarted in the event of host failure if resources are available Automated initial virtual machine placement

Virtual Machine Resource Profile 2 Memory sharing techniques should not be used Virtual machines should be automatically restarted in the event of host failure regardless of available resources Automated initial virtual machine placement

Which two recommendations should the architect make for placement of the virtual machines to meet resource profile requirements? (Choose two.)

A. All virtual machines matching Virtual Machine Resource Profile 2 should be placed on Cluster One.

B. All virtual machines matching Virtual Machine Resource Profile 1 should be placed on Cluster One.

C. All virtual machines matching Virtual Machine Resource Profile 2 should be placed on Cluster Two.

D. All virtual machines matching Virtual Machine Resource Profile 1 should be placed on Cluster Two.

E. All virtual machines matching Virtual Machine Resource Profile 2 should be placed on Cluster Three.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 5:

An architect is designing a new VMware solution for a customer that has a number of different resource

profiles.

The following are the business requirements for the design:

The solution must support virtual machines with the following storage profiles:

-Write-intensive

-Backup

-Write-Once-Read-Many (WORM) archive

The solution must support migration of virtual machine disks between storage profiles.

The WORM archive data must be located at an isolated secure site.

The backup storage array must only be connected to a backup media server.

All data should be recoverable from backup.

Which design decision should the architect make to meet the business requirements?

A. The solution will leverage a single storage array for the WORM archive and write-intensive storage profiles

B. The solution will leverage the same array for the backup and write-intensive storage profiles

C. The solution will leverage a different array for each storage profile

D. The solution will leverage a single storage array for all storage profiles

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

An architect is preparing a design for a company planning digital transformation. During the requirements

gathering workshop, the following requirements (REQ) and constraints (CON) are identified:

REQ01 The platform must host different types of workloads including applications that must be compliant

with internal security standard.

REQ02 The infrastructure must initially run 100 virtual machines.

REQ03 Ten of the virtual machines must be compliant with internal security standard.

REQ04 The internal security standard specifies logical network separation for in-scope applications.

CON01 The customer has already purchased the licenses as part of another project.

CON02 The customer has five physical servers that must be reused.

Additionally, based on resource requirements, four physical servers will be enough to run all workloads.

Which recommendation should the architect make to meet requirements while minimizing project costs?

A. Use Network I/O Control to ensure the internal security zone has higher share value

B. Purchase additional servers and plan separate, isolated clusters for workloads that must be compliant with internal security

C. Use a single cluster and ensure that different security zones are separated at least with dedicated VLANs and firewall

D. Use a single cluster and configure DRS anti-affinity rules to ensure internal security compliant virtual machines cannot migrate between ESXi hosts.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

An architect is designing the expansion of an existing vSphere 7 environment. The customer is requesting

a design for a new cluster to support the anticipated future business growth. The requirements specified

for the existing environment design must be considered when designing the new cluster.

The existing design has the following requirements:

REQ01 The environment has an availability target of 99.5% for all infrastructure.

REQ02 The recovery time objective (RTO) for Tier 1 virtual machines is one hour.

REQ03 Windows and Linux virtual machines must reside on separate clusters.

REQ04 Access to the management cluster within the environment must be controlled.

Which of the listed requirements would be classified as a functional requirement?

A. The environment has an availability target of 99.5% for all infrastructure

B. The recovery time objective (RTO) for Tier 1 virtual machines is one hour

C. Access to the management cluster within the environment must be controlled

D. Windows and Linux virtual machines must reside on separate clusters

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which two of the listed requirements would be classified as manageability non-functional requirements? (Choose two.)

A. ESXi clusters must scale when compute resources are sustained above 70% for five business days

B. vSphere Fault Tolerance must be supported to improve application uptime

C. ESXi host updates must be installed within one week of release

D. The vSphere environment must support administrator password rotation

E. ESXi clusters must scale to 500 concurrent virtual machines

Correct Answer: CE


Question 9:

An architect makes the design decision to install ESXi on embedded and resilient 8 GB SD cards. What is the impact of this design decision?

A. Host profiles must be used for this kind of installation

B. Scratch partition would need to be created on the external storage

C. The size of the SD cards is too small and the installation will fail

D. The vSphere Auto Deploy feature must be enabled on vCenter Server

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

An architect is designing a new vSphere environment to meet the following requirements:

The environment must support 5,000 virtual machines.

The environment will be built initially using 350 hosts.

Which vCenter Server appliance deployment size should the architect specify for the design?

A. Large

B. Small

C. Tiny

D. Medium

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

An architect is designing a new greenfield environment with 600 ESXi hosts in an automated fashion. The engineering department already has a PXE Boot server, TFTP server, and DHCP server set up with an NFS mount for their current Linux servers.

The architect must be able to demonstrate and meet a security requirement to have all infrastructure processes separated.

Which recommendation should the architect make for the ESXi host deployment?

A. Request an isolated network segment to use and dedicate it to Auto Deploy functions

B. Ask the business to expand the engineering environment to service the virtual environment as well

C. Request a common shared network with flexible security measures to accommodate different auto deployment options

D. Deploy each ESXi host individually and document it to satisfy security requirements

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

An architect is designing a new vSphere environment with the following resources:

600 vCPU

5,760 GB RAM

Average resource usage is:

60 vCPU

1,152 GB RAM

The design must meet the following requirements:

The environment has the ability to burst by 25%.

Each host can schedule 36 vCPUs and has 512 GB RAM.

Management overhead is 20%.

What is the minimum number of hosts required to meet the design requirements?

A. Three

B. Five

C. Four

D. Two

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

An architect is designing a new vSphere platform to meet a list of requirements from the security team.

Which two requirements would be classified as non-functional requirements? (Choose two.)

A. Migration of virtual machines between hosts must be encrypted

B. Log information must be verbose to support incident resolution

C. Critical events generated within the platform must be logged to an external Syslog service

D. Data integrity must be ensured

E. A common content library must be maintained across all data centers

Correct Answer: BC


Question 14:

An architect is finalizing the design for a new vSphere platform based on the following information:

All Windows virtual machines will be hosted on a dedicated cluster for licensing purposes.

All Linux virtual machines will be hosted on a dedicated cluster for licensing purposes.

All management virtual machines will be hosted on a dedicated cluster.

A total of ten physical sites will be used to host virtual machines.

In the event of one physical datacenter becoming unavailable, the manageability of the virtual

infrastructure in the remaining data centers should not be impacted.

Access to configure the management virtual machines via vCenter Server must be controlled through the

management Active Directory domain.

Access to configure the Windows and Linux virtual machines must be controlled through the resource

Active Directory domain.

The management and resource Active Directory domains are part of separate Active Directory forests and

do not have any trusts between them.

The design will use Active Directory with Integrated Windows Authentication.

How should the architect document the vCenter Server configuration for this design?

A. Deploy a vCenter server for the management cluster. Deploy a vCenter Server for all remaining clusters. Create a shared SSO domain for each physical site.

B. Deploy a vCenter Server for the management cluster. Deploy a vCenter Server for all remaining clusters. Create a shared SSO domain across all physical sites.

C. Deploy a vCenter Server for the management cluster with a dedicated SSO domain. Deploy a vCenter Server for all remaining clusters and use a dedicated SSO domain for each physical site.

D. Deploy a vCenter Server for the management cluster with a dedicated SSO domain. Deploy a vCenter Server for all remaining clusters and use a dedicated SSO domain into a single physical site.

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

An architect is reviewing a physical storage design. The customer has specified that storage DRS will be used for ease of operational management for capacity and performance.

Which recommendation should the architect include in the design?

A. Create smaller datastores to balance space with Storage DRS

B. Use a larger number of storage profiles (varied disk speeds and RAID levels) to improve performance

C. Create larger datastores to balance space with Storage DRS

D. Create more datastores within each Storage DRS cluster to balance space and performance

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

You want to display employee records in tabular format, but the form is not wide enough to display all the items in the Employees block. The employee IDs and names of displayed records should always be visible, but you want to scroll the additional information as users tab through the Items, the form should look like a spreadsheet with the first two columns frozen.

Which canvas types would be most appropriate in this scenario?

A. content canvas in a window with a horizontal scroll bar

B. content canvas and multiple tab canvases

C. content canvas and a tab canvas with multiple tab pages

D. content canvas and a stacked canvas with a horizontal scroll bar

E. multiple content canvases

Correct Answer: C

After an entity is divided into groups, if all groups cannot be displayed simultaneously, it becomes necessary for two or more regions to be displayed in the exact same space, one at a time, using a Tab control. The user can jump to a specific

region by selecting a tab or by progressing continuously through all fields of all Tab regions. A set of fields, minimally the primary key fields, should remain visible so the user can maintain context at all times. There, “frozen” fields must be

placed inside the Tab control on the left side.

When best to use Tab regions:

*

When the user must see all fields of a record in a single window, but they do not need to see them all simultaneously.

*

When entire regions need to be hidden from a user due to security restrictions, the current state of data, or other product installations.


Question 2:

You want to use the Forms Debugger to diagnose a problem with the RAISE_STATUS program unit that is stored in the database.

Forms Builder, you set a breakpoint in the stored code, and then run the Human Resources form in debug mode. You click the Raise_Salaries button, which has a When Button Pressed trigger that calls RAISE_SALARIES.

However, you are unable to see the RAISE_SALARIES procedure when you step through the code, and it does not appear in the stack frame. What could be the reason for this problem?

A. You are not connected to the database.

B. The stored program unit was not compiled with the debug information included.

C. The breakpoint should have been set in the When-Button-Pressed trigger, not in the stored program unit.

D. You cannot use the Forms Debugger to diagnose problems with stored program units.

Correct Answer: D

The Forms debugger can only step through Forms side code, not database side code. If you Form calls a database procedure, you will not be able to see what it does through the Forms debugger.


Question 3:

When users enter address information, you want them to be able to select the state from a static list of values. You have not used a list of states before, and there is no database table that contains state information. What is the first step in creating such a list of values as quickly as possible?

A. invoke the LOV wizard.

B. Create a new record group that is based on a SQL query.

C. Create a new static record group.

D. Create a list item instead; a list of values is not appropriate for a static list.

Correct Answer: A

ow to create LOV in Oracle forms?

List of Values(LOV) are used either when a selected list is too long and hence would not be appropriate for a drop down, but needs a search form to select the value.

Steps to create LOV functionality:

*

Click on the LOV icon in the object navigator and choose a manual/automatic wizard. This will create a record group.

*

Open a search form in the Dialog Page

*

Select values inside this form.

*

Return selected values to the original page.


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Question 1:

What is the source file extension schema of APIs in IBM API Connect?

A. .yaml

B. .raml

C. .wadl

D. .wsdl

Correct Answer: A

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMNED_5.0.0/com.ibm.apic.toolkit.doc/ capim_cli_swagger_def_file.html


Question 2:

Consider the scenario where a new provider organization role has been created, and default catalog permissions have been specified for that user under the provider organization admin settings.

If this same role should have reduced permissions for a given catalog, which action should be performed?

A. Nothing, catalog specific roles are not a supported capability.

B. Update the LDAP registry manually with the new permissions.

C. Override the role catalog permissions within the catalog settings.

D. Create another new provider organization role specific for that catalog.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which command would be used to display log file contents as they are added to the log?

A. generate_log

B. download cmc.out

C. debug postmortem export

D. debug tail file

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMNED_5.0.0/com.ibm.apic.overview.doc/ ref_CLI_debug_commands.html


Question 4:

What can be configured to secure communication between the Gateway server and the Cloud Manager?

A. OAuth 2.0

B. TLS Profiles

C. Network HSM

D. Java KeyStore

Correct Answer: A

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMNED_5.0.0/com.ibm.apic.overview.doc/ capim_overview_apiconnectcomponents.html


Question 5:

What happens to the original Product when it is superseded?

A. Revised

B. Archived

C. Replaced

D. Deprecated

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMNED_5.0.0/ com.ibm.apic.apionprem.doc/task_superseding_a_product.html


Question 6:

What will happen to changes a customer makes directly on an APIM domain on an IBM DataPower Gateway server when the customer upgrades the API Management server?

A. The DataPower Gateway server will need to be removed and re-added for changes to be unaffected.

B. Upgrading the Management server has no direct effect on an APIM domain on DataPower Gateway servers.

C. The DataPower Gateway server will save the configuration and auto recover once the API Connect server has been upgraded.

D. Changes the customer makes on the DataPower Gateway server under the APIM domain will be overwritten and will need to be re-configured.

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

What does an application developer need to do to use an API?

A. Subscribe to a Plan.

B. Subscribe to a Product.

C. Write an AngularJS application.

D. Register in the Developer Portal.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

Which of the following is possible with the API Developer Toolkit?

A. Pull API Analytics Data.

B. Provision a Developer Portal.

C. Publish Products to a Catalog.

D. Delete a Developer Organization.

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which operation would be specified for a REST API that would allow data to be retrieved from the back end but without the response body?

A. PUT

B. GET

C. HEAD

D. POST

Correct Answer: B

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMKHH_10.0.0/com.ibm.etools.mft.doc/ bi12017_.htm


Question 10:

Which two statements are true regarding a Plan in Developer Portal?

A. Plans cannot have multiple rate limits set per operation.

B. The burst limit feature is available only through Micro Gateway.

C. A Plan is a collection of API operations or subsets of operations from one or more APIs.

D. All Plans are available to use immediately and requires no access to the Developer Portal.

E. A Plan can have a shared rate limit for all the operations or each operation can have a different rate limit.

Correct Answer: AE

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMNED_5.0.0/com.ibm.apic.devportal.doc/ task_cmsportal_selectplan.html


Question 11:

Which is the best option in the API Manager to create a new OpenAPI from a WSDL?

A. Import an existing OpenAPI

B. New OpenAPI from scratch

C. New OpenAPI from Swagger

D. New OpenAPI from SOAP service

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSFS6T/com.ibm.apic.toolkit.doc/ create_api_wsdl.html


Question 12:

OAuth 2.0 provider APIs can support multiple OAuth flows, each of which corresponds to an OAuth grant type.

What are two valid OAuth flows and the corresponding OAuth grant types? (Select two.)

A. username, password

B. Client ID, Client secret

C. authorization url, auth token

D. Application, Client Credentials

E. Access Code, Authorization Code

Correct Answer: DE

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSFS6T/com.ibm.apic.toolkit.doc/ tapim_sec_api_config_scheme_oauth_endpoint.html


Question 13:

When are the default API manager dashboards and visualizations added to the catalog?

A. When an API is published

B. When a Catalog is created

C. Once a Catalog is published to Developer Portal

D. Once the Developer Portal is enabled in the Catalog settings

Correct Answer: B

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSFS6T/com.ibm.apic.apionprem.doc/ capim_analytics_analyticssyndication.html


Question 14:

Once a user-defined policy is created and implemented, how will it be made available for use?

A. By catalog

B. By provider organization

C. Available universally by all APIs

D. Must be imported into assemble for each API usage

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMNED_5.0.0/com.ibm.apic.policy.doc/ capim_using_custpolicies.html


Question 15:

When using IBM API Connect built-in policies in Bluemix, what should users be aware of?

A. Only Micro Gateway policies apply

B. Only DataPower Gateway policies apply

C. Only those policies that generate security tokens apply

D. Only those policies that do not generate security tokens apply

Correct Answer: C

Reference https://www.ibm.com/support/knowledgecenter/en/SSMNED_5.0.0/com.ibm.apic.toolkit.doc/ rapim_ref_ootb_policies.html


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Question 1:

DRAG DROP

When connecting a PowerStore base enclosure to 2 expansion enclosures, match the base SAS ports in column A to their corresponding expansion LCC ports in column B.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/manuals/pk/en/pkbsd1/powerstore-1000/pwrstr-isg/cable-the-base-enclosure-to-the-expansion-enclosure?guid=guid-d68d049f-2b77-489f-b1ab-553f4f3de8aaandlang=en-us


Question 2:

DRAG DROP

Order the steps to prepare for an NDU process.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 3:

DRAG DROP

Correctly order the steps of the embedded module replacement procedure.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Reference: https://topics-cdn.dell.com/pdf/pwrstr-isg_en-us.pdf


Question 4:

DRAG DROP

Match the base enclosure SAS ports in column A to their corresponding expansion LCC ports in column B; when connecting a PowerStore base enclosure to a single expansion enclosure.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 5:

DRAG DROP

Order the NDU operational steps.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 6:

What describes Dell EMC PowerStore X front-end cabling?

A. Uses internal VMware virtual switching and does not require a management network

B. Storage and management use the same LACP bonded cable connection

C. Uses VLTi data switch interconnectivity to support vMotion networks

D. Management and discovery use the same cables and connections as storage

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

Through which network do external hosts connect to the cluster for data access?

A. Management

B. ICM

C. ICD

D. Storage

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://topics-cdn.dell.com/pdf/pwrstr-hcg_en-us.pdf


Question 8:

A Storage Administrator is adding an appliance into an existing Dell EMC PowerStore T cluster.

What is different about the management network configuration for the new appliance compared to configuring an initial appliance for the cluster?

A. All the needed management IP addresses for the new appliance must be pre-configured on the cluster

B. Additional appliance does not require a cluster management IP address

C. Additional appliance inherits all its management IPs from the existing appliance

D. All the needed management IP addresses for the new appliance are auto-generated by the cluster

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

What describes the power requirements for Dell EMC PowerStore?

A. Lower model numbered systems require less AC line current than higher model numbered systems

B. T models require less total power than X models

C. X models require less total power than T models

D. Lower model numbered systems require less input voltage (VAC) than higher model numbered systems

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/manuals/pk/en/pkbsd1/powerstore/pwrstr-plang/power-requirements?guid=guid-21e142df-e22c-4bbc-8978-7c6124753654andlang=en-us


Question 10:

What is the last step when adding a drive to a Dell EMC PowerStore system?

A. Verify the new drive is seen

B. Add the drive to the pool

C. Backup the keystore

D. Zero the drive

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/manuals/pk/en/pkbsd1/powerstore-9000t/pwrstr-isg/install-a-25-drive?guid=guid-bddae51e-a561-4e84-bc0a-c2e99a43f033andlang=en-us


Question 11:

Refer to the exhibit.

A Storage Administrator is troubleshooting a Dell EMC PowerStore T hardware issue. They observe that the base enclosure LED circled is blue. What does this indicate?

A. Base enclosure hardware is operating normally

B. Base enclosure has a component hardware fault

C. Cluster has only a single appliance

D. Appliance has a node in service mode

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/manuals/pk/en/pkbsd1/powerstore-9000t/pwrstr-isg/embedded-module-leds?guid=guid-bc07892c-75cf-43b6-8f17-8a4c49001aebandlang=en-us


Question 12:

A Storage Administrator needs to connect through SSH to run svc commands. How is the SSH session configured?

A. Appliance IP address using port 22

B. NAS server IP address using port 26

C. NAS server IP address using port 22

D. Appliance IP address using port 26

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Which port is used to SSH from one Dell EMC PowerStore appliance to another?

A. 22

B. 26

C. 443

D. 21

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://topics-cdn.dell.com/pdf/pwrstr-scg_en-us.pdf


Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the result of the network configuration shown for a Dell EMC PowerStore T?

A. Interfaces are configured for remote replication traffic

B. Interfaces are configured for PowerStore discovery traffic

C. Ports 1/1/55 and 1/1/56 are added to a new LACP domain

D. Ports 1/1/55 and 1/1/56 are added to the VLTi domain

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

A Storage Administrator noticed a solid amber LED. What does this mean?

A. Drive identification on

B. Drive rebuilding

C. Power up

D. Drive faulted

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://www.dell.com/support/article/en-pk/sln321266/powerstore-understanding-led-colors-and-states-for-troubleshooting?lang=en