2019 AZ-400 exam study guide | AZ-400 study materials

Microsoft Azure certification exam preparation guide

Azure DevOps has a new Microsoft exam, exam AZ-400. There are definitely a lot of questions about this exam. Here are the answers for everyone.

Microsoft Azure certification

  • What is AZ-400?
  • Who should take this exam?
  • Is the AZ-400 difficult?
  • What are the prerequisites for the AZ-400 exam?
  • How do you participate in the az-400 test?
  • How to prepare for the AZ-400 exam?
  • Which books do you recommend?

What is AZ-400?

Microsoft Azure DevOps Solutions

Azure DevOps Solutions is one of the new role-based Azure certifications that validates the skills of azure DevOps professionals. AZ-400 exam study guide, the “AZ-400”, that makes a candidate a Microsoft Certified Azure DevOps Professional.

List of candidates who have obtained this certification:

Candidates for this exam are DevOps professionals.

Is the AZ-400 difficult?

It’s very difficult. Pass Microsoft Azure AZ-400 Exam Questions.Because it covers a lot of topics and requires a variety of skills.

What are the prerequisites for the AZ-400 exam?

  1. These professionals must be proficient with Agile practices in software development.
  2. Familiar with Azure management and azure development, and must be an expert in any of these areas. Ability to design and implement DevOps best practices using Azure technology to incorporate configuration management, versioning, compliance, build, release, testing, and infrastructure as code.
  3. DevOps professionals are able to combine processes, people, and technology to continuously deliver services and products that meet business objectives and user needs.

How do you participate in the az-400 test?

1.Born to Learn:

This is one of Microsoft’s official learning communities where you can find wonderful blog posts about Microsoft certifications and Microsoft AZ-400 Practice Test. When the AZ-400 beta exam is open for registration, you can get the test code you need from it.

2.Join Microsoft’s SME Profile Database:

Members of the group are eligible to receive e-mail messages that contain the AZ-400 beta test code. (Limited exam code in resources)You can access this program through Microsoft AZ-400 Pdf dumps Collaborate, and Microsoft Collaborate is an ideal resource for Microsoft partners.

How to prepare for the AZ-400 exam?

1.Visit Official Microsoft Page Only links to the AZ-400 exam can be accessed from this page.
2.Books Searching for genuine AZ-400 exam books that can help you a lot.
3.Azure White PapersYou can access a variety of white papers, e-books, and analytics reports from the Microsoft Azure page that can help you understand the most updates about azure development operations and related technologies.
4.Microsoft Documentation on Azure DevOps There will be comprehensive dashboards, public projects, and analytics solutions that can be accessed from this document.
5.TrainingFor most of the Azure certification exams, Microsoft provides on-demand instructor-led training in joint with its exam partners.
6. Forums & Study Groups You can find a learning group or forum on the az-400 page on the Microsoft page, which will help you learn.

Study material for exam AZ-400

Which books do you recommend?

1.Introducing Microsoft Team Foundation Server 2017
2.DevOps: 2 Manuscripts – DevOps Handbook and DevOps Adoption
3.The DevOps Handbook: How to Create World-Class Agility, Reliability, and Security in Technology Organizations
4.The Kubernetes Book: March 2019
5. DevOps: A Software Architect’s Perspective (SEI Series in Software Engineering)
6.Microservices, IoT and Azure: Leveraging DevOps and Microservice Architecture to deliver SaaS Solutions
7.Microservices, IoT and Azure: Leveraging DevOps and Microservice Architecture to deliver SaaS Solutions
8.NuGet 2 Essentials

The following can be very useful for this exam:

Design a DevOps Strategy

  • Recommend a migration and consolidation strategy for DevOps tools
  • Design and implement an Agile work management approach
  • Design a quality strategy
  • Design a secure development process
  • Design a tool integration strategy

Implement DevOps Development Processes

  • Design a version control strategy
  • Implement and integrate source control
  • Implement and manage build infrastructure
  • Implement code flow
  • Implement a mobile DevOps strategy
  • Managing application configuration and secrets

Implement Continuous Integration

  • Manage code quality and security policies
  • Implement a container build strategy
  • Implement a build strategy

Implement Continuous Delivery

  • Design a release strategy
  • Set up a release management workflow
  • Implement an appropriate deployment pattern

Implement Dependency Management

  • Design a dependency management strategy
  • Manage security and compliance

Implement Application Infrastructure

  • Design an infrastructure and configuration management strategy
  • Implement Infrastructure as Code
  • Manage Azure Kubernetes Service infrastructure
  • Implement infrastructure compliance and security

Implement infrastructure compliance and security

  • Recommend and design system feedback mechanisms
  • Implement process for routing system feedback to development teams
  • Optimize feedback mechanisms

Best Microsoft MCSA 70-410 Cert Exam Up To Date 2019 for Free

This exam is part of a series of three exams that test the skills and knowledge required to implement the core Windows Server 2012 infrastructure in an existing enterprise environment. 70-410 exam dumps.This exam verifies the ability of candidates to implement and configure Windows Server 2012 core services such as active directory and network services.You must pass to achieve the MCSA: Windows Server 2012 certification.

To help you pass 70-410 exam for the first time, be sure to make the most of these revision resources, practice tests, and tips.

How do I study for MCSA 70-410
exam 2019?

1. Use the Books Revision guides can help you build revisions in the way that best suits your learning style. 70-410 study guide.They focus on your learning and cover the content you will test on the exam.Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
2.Using Microsoft Virtual Academy Microsoft’s Virtual Academy is a learning resource directly from Microsoft that provides free online training and assistance to those interested in Microsoft technology. It contains a lot of videos, presentations, and other information, and it involves a lot of microsoft technology.
3.Join the Microsoft Forum You can bounce ideas off others, gain insight from those who’ve passed the exam and share knowledge and resources to help studying.The technet forum is very useful for guiding and providing information, whether you are taking an exam or just looking for help with a specific microsoft query. There are also a wide range of topics, which means that it is very likely that someone has already answered your question.
4.Take a 70-410 Practice test Practice testing is great, letting you get used to the form of exams, and prepare the types of questions and topics you will face, the real things you will face. This is also a good way to measure your level of learning and identify knowledge gaps.
5.Attend the MCSA 70-740 course You sit in the classroom without distraction, with other people who are focused on passing the same exams.You will also benefit from the teacher’s insight and monitoring of practical experience.
6.Download a trial version of Windows Server A good way to prepare for the exam is to learn the software yourself. Tailored to this experience around the 70-410 exam, you will be able to actually learn and modify, gain experience with certification and real use of the software.
7.Join the Microsoft Research Group The study Group is designed to help you share your learning skills and experience with others about the exam.
It’s also a great way to stay motivated.
8.Join the Windows Server Practice Lab If you’re inexperienced in using the software, you can gain hands-on experience without causing any problems you haven’t experienced yet.Go to the TechNet Virtual Lab, which contains 31 labs aligned with Windows Server 2012. There is a virtual lab dedicated to configuring and managing servers. The most important thing is that these resources are free.
9.Download the Microsoft Learning app There are many apps that can help you learn the exam.

How hard is the 70-410 exam?

In the Microsoft 70-740 exam, you can expect about 47 queries.The required pass score is about 700, which means it’s not an easy nut to crack. You only have 2 hours of exam time.

The success of the Microsoft 70-410 exam can be achieved with two cutting-edge technologies, including 70-410 PDF and hands-on exam testing for learning materials.Geekcert’s PDF documents are easy to carry in laptops or hard copies, so you can easily prepare no matter where you are.

How many Microsoft exams can you take?

Candidates may not attend specific examinations more than 5 times a year (1 2 months). This 12-month period begins on the day the fifth unsuccessful exam was re-tested.

What is an exam dump?

A braindump is a collection of actual exam questions and answers, provided by recent exam takers. These questions can be copied by the tester digitally or manually and then passed to a website that is sold to others.

MCSA and MCSE?

The main difference between MCSA and MCSE is that MCSA 70-410 dumps is an association or entry level certification, and MCSE is an expert certification.

What can I get from MCSA?

Employee’s most popular job with Microsoft Certified System Administrator (MCSA) certified median salary scale

Salary for Certification: Microsoft Certified Systems Administrator (MCSA)

Systems Administrator
Min : $47K
Max : $88K
Information Technology (IT) ManagerMin : $53K
Max : $117K
Senior Systems AdministratorMin : $59K
Max : $105K
Network Administrator Min : $43K
Max : $81K
Information Technology (IT) DirectorMin : $60K
Max : $133K
Senior Systems EngineerMin : $70K
Max : $126K
Systems Engineer (Computer Networking / IT)Min : $49K
Max : $104K

Change the concept of Microsoft Mcsa-windows Server 2012 Exam Preparation-70-410 Training Guide

Using a large number of books and notes, geekcert does not follow the old concept of Microsoft MCSA-Windows Server 2012 exam preparation, but introduces a short, important, and most relevant content that is very helpful in passing any certification to Microsoft MCSA-Windows Server 2012. examination.

For example, our March 2019 70-410 Updated Learning Guide covers a specific number of questions and answers in the entire syllabus.

My experience. Passed 70-410 first try!

I’ve seen so many people struggling with the 70-410 exam (70-410 exam how many questions)and I want to share my experience in the hope that it will help others prepare and get through.

I’ve been following these forums for a while, and I’ve been preparing for exams, and the advice and tips I’ve received have helped me make a lot of preparations.

Comptia A +,network + and Security + certification and Windows XP MCP certification.

I can’t tell you how important these are to my study. If you’re just starting to get certified, only starting with 70-410 dumps pdf and getting into trouble I strongly recommend using a +,network +security + before trying 70-410.

I have learned a lot about basic knowledge and basic concepts from these certifications, which are not covered in any of my research materials used in 70-410 exam dumps.

Study materials:

  1. Pluralsight Training Videos for Server 2012 R2 with Jason Helmick and Greg Shields
  2. Infinite Skills Training Videos for Server 2012 R2 with John Savill
  3. Microsoft Exam Ref for Server 2012 R2 by Craig Zacker
  4. 70-410 Practice Tests

Definitely study at least a little bit of the 711 content before sitting for the exam.

I took advice from others and looked at a little bit from 70-411, but in retrospect, I would have done more because on 710, there seemed to be more questions about 710 than I initially expected.

2019 Cisco 200-105 Dumps | Free 200-105 PDF …

200-105 ICND2

  • Exam Number: 200-105 ICND2
  • Associated Certifications:CCNA Routing and Switching
  • Duration:English, Japanese
  • Available Languages:Pearson VUE
  • Exam Policies:Review type of exam questions

Examination purpose

The exam tests candidates’ knowledge and skills related to LAN switching technology, IPv4 and IPv6 routing technologies, WAN technologies, infrastructure services and infrastructure maintenance.

Learning Resources

  1. Self-Study E-Learning
  2. Lecturer leads training
  3. Cisco Press

Prerequisites

It is recommended that you have the following skills and knowledge before attending this course:

  • Understand the basics of the network
  • Implementation of LAN
  • Enable Internet connectivity
  • Manage network devices
  • Securing Network Devices Implementing a basic IPv6 connection

Self-Study E-Learning

Free Cisco ICND 200-105 Latest & Updated Exam Questions for candidates to study and pass exams fast.Cisco 200-105 Free-Download question discussion:

CCNA Routing and Switching ICND2 200-105 Official Cert Guide, Academic

Lecturer leads training

Best-selling writers and expert lecturers share preparation tips and exam tips to help you identify weaknesses and improve your conceptual knowledge and practical skills.

The Geekcert 200-105 exam PDF and VCE Simulator is the latest certification exam preparation material.Geekcert’s latest 200-105 dumps will help 200-105 candidates pass the 200-105 exam in a short period of time and easily get Cisco certification. Choosing Geekcert as a 200-105 exam preparation assistance will be of great help in passing the Cisco 200-105 exam. Save time, energy and money.

Cisco Press

Trust Cisco Press’s best-selling official Certificate Guide series to help you learn, prepare and practice exam success.
They are built to provide assessment, review, and practice to help ensure that you are well prepared for the certification exam.

CCNA Routing and Switching ICND2 200-105 Official Cert Guide

Where can I get free Cisco 200-105 dumps?

  1. 200-105 Training Courses(There are several training courses to guide you, such as Interconnect Cisco network devices, part 2nd, or CCNA Routing and switching.)
  2. Interconnect Cisco Network equipment Part 2nd Test(Find some online 200-105 tests, Geekcert is great.which will increase your understanding of the CCNA Routing and Exchange exams.)
  3. Press Books (If you are a reader who likes to read, find some 200-105 news books that are suitable for interconnection Cisco Network devices 2nd part of the exam, such as the CCNA Routing and switching self-package training suite.)
  4. Ask Around (You can find it by asking someone with 200-105 exam experience. Get their advice before taking the Connected Cisco Networking Device Part 2 exam.ccna 200-105 pdf download. At the same time, you can join some online forums to provide you with a lot of ideas and suggestions for preparing CCNA routing and exchange exams.)

Pass your 200-105 exam and get Certified | Get 200-105 practice question answers 2019

Not only do we offer Cisco 200-105 practice tests, but we also provide you with proven ICND2 200-105 PDF questions and 200-105 PDF questions, and a clear understanding of how to try to interconnect Cisco Network Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0) The exam is only the first attempt. Our Cisco Certified Professionals provide them with reliable CCNA routing and exchange 200-105 questions and answers.

Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?

A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Correct Answer: B

What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called ?

A. TRAP
B. INFORM
C. GET
D. SET
Correct Answer: AB

Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?

A. show reload
B. show boot
C. show running-config
D. show version
Correct Answer: D

While troubleshooting a GRE tunnel interface issue, show interface command output displays tunnel status up, but line
protocol is down. Which reason for this problem is the most likely?

A. The interface has been administratively shut down.
B. The route to the tunnel destination address is through the tunnel itself
C. The tunnel was just reset.
D. The next hop server is misconfigured
Correct Answer: B

Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type that is supported by Cisco routers?

A. IETF
B. ANSI Annex D
C. Q9333-A Annex A
D. HDLC
Correct Answer: A

What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database?

A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Correct Answer: AC

[Latest Dumps] High Quality Fortinet Security Expert NSE4 Dumps Exam Files Free Update Youtube Shared (Q1-Q30)

Prepare for Fortinet NSE4 exam with latest Fortinet Security Expert NSE4 dumps pdf training resources and study guides free download from lead4pass. “Fortinet Network Security Expert 4 Written Exam (400)” is the name of Fortinet Security Expert https://www.lead4pass.com/NSE4.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Fortinet exam. New Fortinet Security Expert NSE4 dumps vce youtube demo update free shared. Fortinet Security Expert NSE4 dumps exam preparation kit contains all the necessary NSE4 questions that you need to know.

Google Drive Fortinet NSE4 Dumps PDF Free Download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRaE1sNFV5ems4Tmc

Google Drive Fortinet NSE6 Dumps PDF Free Download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRSHYySXJTWV9HVTQ

High Quality Fortinet Security Expert NSE4 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-30)

QUESTION 1
Identify the statement which correctly describes the output of the following command: diagnose ips anomaly list
A. Lists the configured DoS policy.
B. List the real-time counters for the configured DoS policy.
C. Lists the errors captured when compiling the DoS policy.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Examine the following CLI configuration: config system session-ttl set default 1800 end What statement is true about the effect of the above configuration line?
A. Sessions can be idle for no more than 1800 seconds.
B. The maximum length of time a session can be open is 1800 seconds.
C. After 1800 seconds, the end user must re-authenticate.
D. After a session has been open for 1800 seconds, the FortiGate sends a keepalive packet to both client and server.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Review the output of the command get router info routing-table database shown in the Exhibit below; then answer the question following it.
NSE4 dumps
Which of the following statements are correct regarding this output? (Select all that apply).
A. There will be six routes in the routing table.
B. There will be seven routes in the routing table.
C. There will be two default routes in the routing table.
D. There will be two routes for the 10.0.2.0/24 subnet in the routing table.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
An issue could potentially occur when clicking Connect to start tunnel mode SSL VPN. The tunnel will start up for a few seconds, then shut down. Which of the following statements best describes how to resolve this issue?
A. This user does not have permission to enable tunnel mode. Make sure that the tunnel mode widget has been added to that user\’s web portal.
B. This FortiGate unit may have multiple Internet connections. To avoid this problem, use the appropriate CLI command to bind the SSL VPN connection to the original incoming interface.
C. Check the SSL adaptor on the host machine. If necessary, uninstall and reinstall the adaptor from the tunnel mode portal.
D. Make sure that only Internet Explorer is used. All other browsers are unsupported.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
The order of the firewall policies is important. Policies can be re-ordered from either the GUI or the CLI. Which CLI command is used to perform this function?
A. set order
B. edit policy
C. reorder
D. move
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
The following diagnostic output is displayed in the CLI: diag firewall auth list policy iD. 9, srC. 192.168.3.168, action: accept, timeout: 13427 user: forticlient_chk_only, group: flag (80020): auth timeout_ext, flag2 (40): exact group iD. 0, av group: 0 —– 1 listed, 0 filtered —–Based on this output, which of the following statements is correct?
A. Firewall policy 9 has endpoint compliance enabled but not firewall authentication.
B. The client check that is part of an SSL VPN connection attempt failed.
C. This user has been associated with a guest profile as evidenced by the group id of 0.
D. An auth-keepalive value has been enabled.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which of the following statements correctly describes how a push update from the FortiGuard Distribution Network (FDN) works? NSE4 dumps
A. The FDN sends push updates only once.
B. The FDN sends package updates automatically to the FortiGate unit without requiring an update request.
C. The FDN continues to send push updates until the FortiGate unit sends an acknowledgement.
D. The FDN sends a message to the FortiGate unit that there is an update available and that the FortiGate unit should download the update.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An administrator has formed a High Availability cluster involving two FortiGate 310B units. [Multiple upstream Layer 2 switches] — [ FortiGate HA Cluster ] – [ Multiple downstream Layer 2 switches ] The administrator wishes to ensure that a single link failure will have minimal impact upon the overall throughput of traffic through this cluster.
Which of the following Options describes the best step the administrator can take? The administrator should…
A. set up a full-mesh design which uses redundant interface.
B. increase the number of FortiGate units in the cluster and configure HA in Active-Active mode.
C. enable monitoring of all active interface.
D. configure the HA ping server feature to allow for HA failover in the event that a path is disrupted.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A FortiAnalyzer device could use which security method to secure the transfer of log data from FortiGate devices?
A. SSL
B. IPSec
C. direct serial connection
D. S/MIME
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What capabilities can a FortiGate provide? (Choose three.)
A. Mail relay.
B. Email filtering.
C. Firewall.
D. VPN gateway.
E. Mail server.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 11
Identify the correct properties of a partial mesh VPN deployment:
A. VPN tunnels interconnect between every single location.
B. VPN tunnels are not configured between every single location.
C. Some locations are reached via a hub location.
D. There are no hub locations in a partial mesh.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
With FSSO, a domain user could authenticate either against the domain controller running the Collector Agent and Domain Controller Agent, or a domain controller running only the Domain Controller Agent. If you attempt to authenticate with the Secondary Domain Controller running only the Domain Controller Agent, which of the following statements are correct? (Select all that apply.)
A. The login event is sent to the Collector Agent.
B. The FortiGate unit receives the user information from the Domain Controller Agent of the Secondary Controller.
C. The Collector Agent performs the DNS lookup for the authenticated client\’s IP address.
D. The user cannot be authenticated with the FortiGate device in this manner because each Domain Controller Agent requires a dedicated Collector Agent.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
A client can create a secure connection to a FortiGate using SSL VPN in web-only mode. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the use of web-only mode SSL VPN?
A. Web-only mode supports SSL version 3 only.
B. A Fortinet-supplied plug-in is required on the web client to use web-only mode SSL VPN.
C. Web-only mode requires the user to have a web browser that supports 64-bit cipher length.
D. The JAVA run-ti environment must be installed on the client to be able to connect to a web-only mode SSL VPN.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which of the following describes the best custom signature for detecting the use of the word andquot;Fortinetandquot; in chat applications?
NSE4 dumps
A. The sample packet trace illustrated in the exhibit provides details on the packet that requires detection. F-SBID(–prot ocoltcp;–flowfrom_client;–patternandquot;X-MMS-IM-Formatandquot;;–patternandquot;fortinetandquot;;–no_case;)
B. F-SBID(–protocol tcp;–flow from_client;–patternandquot;fortinetandquot;;–no_case;)
C. F-SBID( –protocol tcp; –flow from_client; –pattern andquot;X-MMS-IM-Formatandquot;; –pattern andquot;fortinetandquot;; –within 20; — no_case; )
D. F-SBID(–protocoltcp;–flowfrom_client;–patternandquot;X-MMS-IMFormatandquot;;–patternandquot;fortinetandquot;;–within20;)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
How can DLP file filters be configured to detect Office 2010 files? (Select all that apply.)
A. File TypE. Microsoft Office(msOffice)
B. File TypE. Archive(zip)
C. File TypE. Unknown Filetype(unknown)
D. File NamE. andquot;.pptandquot;, andquot;.docandquot;, andquot;.xlsandquot;
E. File NamE. andquot;.pptxandquot;, andquot;.docxandquot;, andquot;.xlsxandquot;
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 16
An administrator configures a FortiGate unit in Transparent mode on the 192.168.11.0 subnet. Automatic Discovery is enabled to detect any available FortiAnalyzers on the network.
Which of the following FortiAnalyzers will be detected? (Select all that apply.)
A. 192.168.11.100
B. 192.168.11.251
C. 192.168.10.100
D. 192.168.10.251
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
Review the IPsec phase1 configuration in the Exhibit shown below; then answer the question following it.
NSE4 dumps
Which of the following statements are correct regarding this configuration? NSE4 dumps (Select all that apply).
A. The phase1 is for a route-based VPN configuration.
B. The phase1 is for a policy-based VPN configuration.
C. The local gateway IP is the address assigned to port1.
D. The local gateway IP address is 10.200.3.1.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 18
What is the maximum number of FortiAnalyzer/FortiManager devices a FortiGate unit can be configured to send logs to?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
In an IPSec gateway-to-gateway configuration, two FortiGate units create a VPN tunnel between two separate private networks.
Which of the following configuration steps must be performed on both FortiGate units to support this configuration? (Select all that apply.)
A. Create firewall policies to control traffic between the IP source and destination address.
B. Configure the appropriate user groups on the Fortigate units to allow users access to the IPSec VPN connection.
C. Set the operating mode of the FortiGate unit to IPSec VPN mode.
D. Define the Phase 2 parameters that the FortiGate unit needs to create a VPN tunnel with the remote peer.
E. Define the Phase 1 parameters that the FortiGate unit needs to authenticate the remote peers.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 20
Review the IPsec Phase2 configuration shown in the Exhibit; then answer the question following it.
NSE4 dumps
Which of the following statements are correct regarding this configuration? (Select all that apply).
A. The Phase 2 will re-key even if there is no traffic.
B. There will be a DH exchange for each re-key.
C. The sequence number of ESP packets received from the peer will not be checked.
D. Quick mode selectors will default to those used in the firewall policy.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
Which of the following items is NOT a packet characteristic matched by a firewall service object?
A. ICMP type and code
B. TCP/UDP source and destination ports
C. IP protocol number
D. TCP sequence number
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
An administrator wishes to generate a report showing Top Traffic by service type. They notice that web traffic overwhelms the pie chart and want to exclude the web traffic from the report.
Which of the following statements best describes how to do this?
A. In the Service field of the Data Filter, type 80/tcp and select the NOT checkbox.
B. AddthefollowingentrytotheGenericFieldsectionoftheDataFilter:serviceandquot;webandquot;.
C. When editing the chart, uncheck wlog to indicate that Web Filtering data is being excluded when generating the chart.
D. When editing the chart, enter \’http\’ in the Exclude Service field.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which header field can be used in a firewall policy for traffic matching?
A. ICMP type and code.
B. DSCP.
C. TCP window size.
D. TCP sequence number.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which statements are true regarding local user authentication? (Choose two.)
A. Two-factor authentication can be enabled on a per user basis.
B. Local users are for administration accounts only and cannot be used to authenticate network users.
C. Administrators can create the user accounts is a remote server and store the user passwords locally in the FortiGate.
D. Both the usernames and passwords can be stored locally on the FortiGate
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 25
Which of the following cannot be used in conjunction with the endpoint compliance check?
A. HTTP Challenge Redirect to a Secure Channel (HTTPS) in the Authentication Settings.
B. Any form of firewall policy authentication.
C. WAN optimization.
D. Traffic shaping.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
If no firewall policy is specified between two FortiGate interface and zones are not used, which of the following statements describes the action taken on traffic fllowing between these interface?
A. The traffic is blocked.
B. The traffic is passed.
C. The traffic is passed and logged.
D. The traffic is blocked and logged.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A FortiGate unit is configured with three Virtual Domains (VDOMs) as illustrated in the exhibit.
NSE4 dumps
Which of the following statements are correct regarding these VDOMs? (Select all that apply.)
A. The FortiGate unit supports any combination of these VDOMs in NAT/Route and Transparent modes.
B. The FortiGate unit must be a model 1000 or above to support multiple VDOMs.
C. A license had to be purchased and applied to the FortiGate unit before VDOM mode could be enabled.
D. All VDOMs must operate in the same mode.
E. Changing a VDOM operational mode requires a reboot of the FortiGate unit.
F. An admin account can be assigned to one VDOM or it can have access to all three VDOMs.
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 28
Which of the following DLP actions will always be performed if it is selected? NSE4 dumps
A. Archive
B. Quarantine Interface
C. Ban Sender
D. Block
E. None
F. Ban
G. Quarantine IP Address
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which statements are correct regarding virtual domains (VDOMs)? (Choose two.)
A. VDOMs divide a single FortiGate unit into two or more virtual units that each have dedicated memory and CPUs.
B. A management VDOM handles SNMP, logging, alert email, and FDN-based updates.
C. VDOMs share firmware versions, as well as antivirus and IPS databases.
D. Different time zones can be configured in each VDOM.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 30
Examine the static route configuration shown below; then answer the question following it. config router static edit 1 set dst 172.20.1.0 255.255.255.0 set device port1 set gateway 172.11.12.1 set distance 10 set weight 5 next edit 2 set dst 172.20.1.0 255.255.255.0 set blackhole enable set distance 5 set weight 10 next end Which of the following statements correctly describes the static routing configuration provided? (Select all that apply.)
A. All traffic to 172.20.1.0/24 will always be dropped by the FortiGate unit.
B. As long as port1 is up, all the traffic to 172.20.1.0/24 will be routed by the static route number 1. If the interface port1 is down, the traffic will be routed using the blackhole route.
C. The FortiGate unit will NOT create a session entry in the session table when the traffic is being routed by the blackhole route.
D. The FortiGate unit will create a session entry in the session table when the traffic is being routed by the blackhole route.
E. Traffic to 172.20.1.0/24 will be shared through both routes.
Correct Answer: AC

Here Are Some Reviews From Our Customers:

NSE4 dumps
You can click here to have a review about us: https://www.resellerratings.com/store/lead4pass

Why Select Lead4pass?

Lead4pass is the best provider of IT learning materials and the right choice for you to pass Fortinet NSE4 exam. Other brands started earlier, but the questions are not the newest and the price is relatively expensive. Lead4pass provide the latest real and cheapest questions and answers, help you pass Fortinet NSE4 exam easily at first try.
NSE4 dumps
NSE4 dumps
The best and most updated latest Fortinet Security Expert NSE4 dumps exam practice files in PDF format download free try from lead4pass. Useful Fortinet Security Expert https://www.lead4pass.com/NSE4.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing NSE4 exam test, and to get certified by Fortinet Security Expert. 100% passing guarantee and full refund in case of failure.

Latest Fortinet Security Expert NSE4 dumps vce youtube:

[Latest Dumps] New Cisco Specialist 700-172 Dumps Exam Training Resources Update Free Shared (Q1-Q20)

The best and most updated latest Cisco Specialist latest 700-172 dumps online exam training resources in PDF format free download from geekcert. Useful latest Cisco Specialist 700-172 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo update free shared. “FlexPod Sales” is the name of EXIN ITIL Cisco Specialist exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. New Cisco Specialist 700-172 dumps exam questions and answers download free try. 100% success and guarantee to pass Cisco 700-172 exam.

Latest Cisco 700-172 dumps pdf training resources: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRSXU4YkVVUnJLS00

Latest Cisco 700-070 dumps pdf training resources: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRSHp4NlVtYW9vcGM
700-172 dumps

New Cisco Specialist 700-172 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which three options are ways that customers benefit from the Cisco Technology Developer Program? (Choose three.)
A. Complete access to Cisco technologies and support resources
B. Faster, more successful deployments
C. Display the Cisco Compatible logo in association with their product offering
D. Exponentially expands the number and quality of rich, new business solutions
E. Opportunity to participate in Cisco research and development to develop next-generation Cisco Collaboration solutions
Correct Answer: C,D,E

QUESTION 2
In which deployment model does the service provider host dedicated equipment within its network operations center for a predictable monthly cost?
A. Managed customer-premises
B. Equipment services
C. Fully hosted unified communications
D. Advanced services mode
E. Hybrid or blended model
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which collaborative quoting platform gives an account manager the autonomy to make deals and quote decisions from within a single workspace?
A. Cisco Partner Central
B. Cisco Commerce Workspace
C. Cisco Unified Communications Business Advisor
D. Cisco Smart Business Roadmap
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which three options are important selling points for Cisco against Microsoft? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco better enables for mobility and deskless workers.
B. Cisco is well respected and is the only serious choice in collaboration.
C. Cisco Unified Presence can be integrated with Microsoft Office Communicator and Microsoft Lync.
D. Cisco has the maturity both in technology development and empirical deployment to scale to the requirements of large enterprises.
E. Cisco routers represent a competitive edge in remote offices.
F. Cisco provides unparalleled value to the managed service provider.
Correct Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION 5
Which option is an application in the Cisco IOS Software that provides call processing for as few as 15 and as many as 450 Cisco Unified IP Phones?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
B. Cisco Unified Computing System
C. Cisco Integrated Media Engine
D. Cisco Emergency Responder
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which option aligns licensing to these three key role-based licenses: Power User, Information Work, and Officer Worker?
A. Right-to-Use Licenses
B. Cisco Unity Connection 9. 0 Licensing
C. Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing
D. Device License Units
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which three statements about Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? 700-172 dumps (Choose three.)
A. It supports the full range of collaboration services only on Cisco devices
B. It supports the full range of collaboration services on Cisco and third-party devices.
C. It is used only to support voice routing and calling
D. It replaces the analog technology of PBX with a centralized IP-based communications infrastructure.
E. It is at the center of the Cisco collaboration architecture.
F. It combines the analog technology of PBX with a centralized IP-based communications infrastructure.
Correct Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 8
You are discussing Cisco Collaboration Architecture with the IT manager of an organization
Which three statements are effective responses that relate to the IT manager’s concerns’? (Choose three.)
A. Improved collaboration tools improve the end-user experience and will make the IT manager more popular.
B. Initial costs may be higher, but comparing the Total Cost of Ownership over a five-year period will show that the Cisco product is less expensive.
C. A centralized Collaboration Architecture deployment will ease management and save money.
D. A fully-deployed Collaboration Architecture supports efficient training in a variety of ways
E. The Collaboration Architecture, by design, ensures the highest availability.
F. Collaboration tools improve upon ways in which corporations can enforce employee accountability.
Correct Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION 9
Which statement is an important selling point for Cisco against Avaya?
A. Cisco is well respected and is the proven leader in collaboration.
B. Cisco supports deskless workers
C. Cisco can offer a complete end-to-end solution
D. Cisco has acquired more than 100 innovative companies.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which three roles belong to an informal buying center that the account manager must be aware of? (Choose three)
A. Gatekeeper
B. Partner
C. Initiator
D. Seller
E. Buyer
F. Dealer
Correct Answer: A,C,E

QUESTION 11
Which statement about Cisco WebEx Meeting Center is true?
A. It is powered by Jabber XMPP and can be used for one-on-one or group chat and file transfers
B. It is an award-winning flagship product that simulates a traditional live meeting in an online environment
C. It displays life-size, remarkably clear video images, which provide a “face-to-face” meeting with remote customers, suppliers, and partners.
D. It is fully scalable, is delivered entirely over the public Internet, and is optimized for security, performance, and reliability.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Cisco Collaboration is expensive. This is a very common FUD statement. Which two are proven ways of handling this statement? (Choose two)
A. Cisco is trusted for delivering quality and reliable world class solutions, support, and services, hence its collaboration solution is expensive
B. Cisco is a proven vendor and its collaboration portfolio is very competitively priced when compared to similar vendors in the market
C. Cisco collaboration might demand higher CAPEX but it is worthwhile since OPEX will be reduced significantly during the life cycle
D. Cisco’s end-to-end solution saves money through centralized management and enhanced scalability and flexibility
E. Cisco has the most comprehensive collaboration portfolio and flexible delivery model offerings in the market at a the most affordable price
Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 13
Which two options are advantages of a Collaboration Architecture that are important from the Human Resource Managers viewpoint? (Choose two.)
A. 24-hour network support
B. Advanced collaboration tools improve upon ways in which corporations can enforce employee accountability.
C. The corporation gains increased redundancy in the communications network
D. Advanced collaboration applications provide multiple communication channels through which employees can communicate with one another
E. Emergency response is improved upon, which results in a safer work environment
Correct Answer: B,E

QUESTION 14
Which three statements describe Cisco Enterprise License Manager? (Choose three.)
A. It is centralized and free, and it manages licenses across multiple clusters through license management, reporting, and compliance systems.
B. It is an enterprise-wide management tool for all Cisco Collaboration licenses
C. It is available in Professional. Standard, and Entry Editions
D. It includes soft clients, applications server software, and licensing on a per-user basis
E. It enables customers to see whether they require additional licenses and how the purchased licenses are utilized.
Correct Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION 15
Who uses Cisco Show and Share and Cisco WebEx Social for gaining and sharing information?
A. Customer
B. Knowledge worker
C. Mobile worker and teleworker
D. Contact center agent
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which company stakeholder may ask questions relating to improving resource efficiency while maintaining regulatory compliance during evaluation of a new architecture or strategy?
A. Chief Financial Officer
B. Chief Information Officer
C. Chief Executive Officer
D. Vice President
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which two of the following are concerns that an operations manager may have in making a decision on Cisco Collaboration? (Choose two.)
A. Fast adoption of organizational changes
B. How to engage with external suppliers quickly
C. Reliability of the company infrastructure
D. Go-to-market time of new products or services
E. Changing customer demands
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 18
Which statement correctly describes the features of the product?
A. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center Quick response tools, high-quality video, support locations where Internet access is regulated
B. Cisco WebEx Training Center: Visual attention indicator, integrated testing engine, breakout sessions
C. Cisco WebEx Support Center: High-quality video, multisession interface, integrated testing engine
D. Cisco Unified Meeting Place: Fully scalable, visual attention indicator, optimized for BYOD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two customer statements present business ROI? 700-172 dumps (Choose two)
A. Cisco Collaboration helps us to increase the productivity of our sales force and to gain new revenue streams through new customers
B. Cisco Telepresence can integrate with our existing video infrastructure
C. With Cisco Collaboration, we will engage quicker with third-party suppliers and will shorten goto-market time for innovative products globally
D. With Cisco Collaboration, we can deploy Extension Mobility, which will allow employees to “touchdown” at any workspace
E. A Cisco Collaboration Architecture will improve our company’s morale
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 20
Mobile workers and teleworkers do not have direct access to coworkers, but they must engage with them regularly.
Which three collaboration tools benefit these workers’? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Jabber
B. Cisco Video Conferencing
C. Cisco Emergency Responder
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
E. Cisco Unified Communications
Correct Answer: A,B,E

The Following Are Some Reviews From Our Customers:

700-172 dumps
You can click here to have a review about us: https://www.resellerratings.com/store/lead4pass

Why Choose Lead4 pass?

High quality IT learning materials offered by the best provider geekcert. From the following picture, you can see there is a difference between geekcert and other brands. Other brands started earlier, but the questions are not the latest and it is very expensive. geekcert provide the cheapest and newest questions with high pass rate.
700-172 dumps
High quality Cisco Specialist 700-172 dumps pdf practice materials and study guides download free try from geekcert.com. Newest helpful Cisco Specialist https://www.geekcert.com/700-172.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 700-172 exam test, and to get certified by Cisco Cisco Specialist. It is the best choice for you to pass Cisco 700-172 exam easily.

Useful Cisco Specialist 700-172 dumps vce youtube demo:

[Latest Dumps] Best EXIN ITIL EX0-117 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers Update (Q1-Q30)

Best EXIN ITIL EX0-117 dumps exam practice questions and answers download free try from lead4pass. High quality latest EXIN ITIL EX0-117 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo update free shared. “ITIL Foundation (syllabus 2011)” is the name of EXIN ITIL https://www.lead4pass.com/EX0-117.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real EXIN exam. Useful latest EXIN ITIL EX0-117 dumps pdf training resources and study guides free download, pass EXIN EX0-117 exam test quickly and easily.

Free latest EXIN EX0-117 dumps pdf download from google drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1Ezx1H5k9oH8l7ih5F6I28xD-9Ul7F-fp

Free latest EXIN EX0-001 dumps pdf download from google drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRSFlxTVlESmNLY1U
EX0-117 dumps

EXIN ITIL EX0-117 Dumps Exam Real Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A. Process owner
B. Change manager
C. Service manager
D. Process practitioner
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B. IT operations management
C. Capacity management
D. Incident management
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A. Wisdom – Information – Data – Knowledge
B. Data – Information – Knowledge – Wisdom
C. Knowledge – Wisdom – Information – Data
D. Information – Data – Knowledge – Wisdom
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
A. To identify patterns of business activity
B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services
D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of “the four Ps”. EX0-117 dumps What are these four Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, plans
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, plans, partners
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A. Allows higher volumes of successful change
B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management
B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?
A. Change proposal
B. Change policy
C. Service request
D. Risk register
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident
2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Why is it important for service providers to understand patterns of business activity (PBA)?
A. PBA are based on organizational roles and responsibilities
B. IT service providers CANNOT schedule changes until they understand PBA
C. Demand for the services delivered by service providers are directly influenced by PBA
D. Understanding PBA is the only way to enable accurate service level reporting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which one of the following would NOT be defined as part of every process?
A. Roles
B. Inputs and outputs
C. Functions
D. Metrics
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
A. Service level management
B. Service catalogue management
C. Demand management
D. Service transition
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?
A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B. Perform an activity
C. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
D. Manage an activity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?
1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?
A. Components
B. Processes
C. The end-to-end service
D. Customer satisfaction
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?
A. Capacity management
B. Incident management
C. Service level management
D. Financial management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as? EX0-117 dumps
A. Outcome
B. Incident
C. Change
D. Problem
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
A. Change management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Supplier management
D. Continual service improvement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?
1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?
A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
1. To automatically detect service-affecting events
2. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
3. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?
1. Those planned to be delivered
2. Those being delivered
3. Those that have been withdrawn from service
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
The BEST description of an incident is:
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
EX0-117 dumps Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?
C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
Correct Answer: D

Here Are Some Reviews From Our Customers:

EX0-117 dumps

Why Select Lead4pass?

Lead4pass is the best IT learning material provider. Other brands appeared early, the questions are not the latest and it is very expensive. Lead4pass provide the newest and cheapest questions and answers. Lead4pass is the correct choice for IT learning materials, help you pass your exam easily.
EX0-117 dumps
The best and most updated latest EXIN ITIL EX0-117 dumps exam practice files in PDF format free download from lead4pass. Latest EXIN ITIL https://www.lead4pass.com/EX0-117.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing EX0-117 exam test, and to get certified by EXIN EXIN ITIL, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free with high pass rate.

High quality EXIN ITIL EX0-117 dumps vce youtube: https://youtu.be/yEd1WgZh4qA

[Latest Dumps] What is the Latest Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Questions And Youtube Free Update (Q1-Q20)

What is the latest Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps exam? It is the best choice with latest useful Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps exam practice questions and answers free download from lead4pass. Helpful newest Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo update free shared. “CCNA Cisco Certified Network Associate CCNA (v3.0)” is the name of Cisco CCNA https://www.lead4pass.com/200-125.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco CCNA. The best and most updated latest Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps exam training resources in PDF format download free try, pass Cisco 200-125 exam test easily at first attempt.

Latest Cisco 200-125 dumps pdf questions and answers: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRSnZDMkVUWDJzLWM

Latest Cisco 200-105 dumps pdf questions and answers: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRS3BsT2duT3pTSlU
200-125 dumps

High Quality Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined for 192.168.0.0/20 to a specific interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.240.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
D. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?
A. traceroute
B. telnet
C. ping
D. show ipv6
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which component of a routing table entry represents the subnet mask?
A. routing protocol code
B. prefix
C. metric
D. network mask
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What is the correct command for floating static ipv6 route?
A. ipv6 route 2001:DB8::/32 serial 2/0 201
B. ipv6 route 2001:DB8::/32 serial 2/0 1
C. N/A
D. N/A
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Scenario
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links. 200-125 dumps
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R5 in the Branch2 office. What is causing the problem?
A. There is an area ID mismatch.
B. There is a PPP authentication issue; a password mismatch.
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
D. There is a missing network command in the OSPF process on R5.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What routing protocol use first-hand information?
A. link-state
B. distance-vector
C. path-vector
D. other
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection.
B. The connection is established before data is transmitted.
C. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.
D. It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP.
E. It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted.
F. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. 200-125 dumps Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 9
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)
A. autonomous system number
B. version number
C. router ID
D. subnet mask
E. IP address
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table?
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the interfaces of R2 as indicated by the command output shown?
A. One interface has a problem.
B. Two interfaces have problems.
C. The interfaces are functioning correctly.
D. The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
On which options are standard access lists based?
A. destination address and wildcard mask
B. destination address and subnet mask
C. source address and subnet mask
D. source address and wildcard mask
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
–Router R1 connects the main office to internet, and routers R2 and R3 are internal routers –NAT is enabled on Router R1 –The routing protocol that is enabled between Rl, R2 and R3 is RIPv2 –R1 sends default route into RIPv2 for internal routers to forward internet traffic to R1 –Serverl and Server 2 are placed in VLAN 100 and 200 respectively, and are still running on stick Configuration with router R2. 200-125 dumps You have console access on Rl, R2, R3 and L2SW1 devices. Use only show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
200-125 dumps
Users in the main office complain that they are unable to reach internet sites. You observe that internet traffic that is destined towards ISP router is not forwarded correctly on Router R1.
What could be an issue?
Ping to Internet server shows the following results from R1:
Rl#ping 209.165.200.225
Type escape sequence to abort.
Sending 5,100-byte ICMP Echos to 209.165.200.225, timeout is 2 seconds:
…..
Success rate is 0 percent (0/5)
A. The next hop router address for the default route is incorrectly configured.
B. Default route pointing to ISP router is not configured on Router R1.
C. Default route pointing to ISP router is configured with AD of 225.
D. Router R1 configured as DHCP client is not receiving default route via DHCP from ISP router.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Users have been complaining that their Frame Relay connection to the corporate site is very slow. The network administrator suspects that the link is overloaded.
200-125 dumps
Based on the partial output of the Router# show frame relay pvc command shown in the graphic, which output value indicates to the local router that traffic sent to the corporate site is experiencing congestion?
A. DLCI = 100
B. last time PVC status changed 00:25:40
C. in BECN packets 192
D. in FECN packets 147
E. in DE packets 0
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Requirement to configure DHCP binding ( choose two)
A. DHCP pool
B. ip address
C. Hardware address
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0 network. The network administrator connected to router Coffee via the console port, issued the show ip route command, and was able to ping the server.
200-125 dumps
Based on the output of the show ip route command and the topology shown in the graphic, what is the cause of the failure?
A. The network has not fully converged.
B. IP routing is not enabled.
C. A static route is configured incorrectly.
D. The FastEthernet interface on Coffee is disabled.
E. The neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated.
F. The routing table on Coffee has not updated.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why? 200-125 dumps
A. Switch A, because it has the lowest MAC address
B. Switch A, because it is the most centrally located switch
C. Switch B, because it has the highest MAC address
D. Switch C, because it is the most centrally located switch
E. Switch C, because it has the lowest priority
F. Switch D, because it has the highest priority
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20
Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?
A. enable cdp
B. cdp enable
C. cdp run
D. run cdp
Correct Answer: C

What Our Customers Are Saying:

200-125 dumps
You can click here to have a review about us: https://www.resellerratings.com/store/lead4pass

Newest Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps pdf practice materials and study guides free download from lead4pass. High quality latest Cisco CCNA https://www.lead4pass.com/200-125.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 200-125 exam test, and to get certified by Cisco CCNA, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free, 100% pass guarantee.

Best Cisco CCNA 200-125 dumps vce youtube: https://youtu.be/nF4Ul2viODM

Why Choose Lead4pass?

High quality IT learning materials offered by the best provider lead4pass. From the picture, you can see lead4pass difference with other brands. Other brands started earlier, but the questions are not the latest and it is very expensive. Lead4pass provide the cheapest and newest real exam questions and answers with high pass rate.
200-125 dumps

[Latest Dumps] Do You Want to Pass The Microsoft MCSD 70-488 Dump Exam? Best Files And Youtube Free Demo (Q1- Q10)

Are you ready for Microsoft MCSD 70-488 dumps exam? Do you want to pass the Microsoft MCSD 70-488 dumps exam easily? Lead4pass offers the latest Microsoft MCSD 70-488 dumps exam questions and answers download free try. Latest Microsoft MCSD 70-488 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Developing Microsoft SharePoint Server 2013 Core Solutions” is the name of Microsoft MCSD https://www.lead4pass.com/70-488.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. The best useful Microsoft MCSD 70-488 dumps pdf training resources and study guides update free try, pass Microsoft 70-488 exam test quickly and easily at first atttempt.

Latest Microsoft 70-488 dumps pdf files free download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRRE1mUmduT0NiWlU

Latest Microsoft 70-480 dumps pdf files free download: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRQTNabE5YSjVzT1U
70-488 dumps
Best Microsoft MCSD 70-488 dumps exam files Qs & As (1-10)

QUESTION 1
You need to ensure that the CourierMobile app determines whether the franchisee owns the account.
What should you do?
A. Use OAuth and App only security. Request the Read right from the http://sharepoint/content/sitecollection/web/list scope URI.
B. Use OAuth and App+User security. Request the Read right from the http://sharepoint/content/sitecollection scope URI.
C. Use SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges to connect to SharePoint and read from the Accounts list in the site collection.
D. Use the SharePoint user credentials of the bicycle messenger to connect to SharePoint and read from the Accounts list in the site collection.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A franchisee deletes several sites from the franchise’s site collection. The franchisee site collection administrator must recover the sites.
You need to instruct the franchisee site collection administrator on how to access the page to recover the sites.
What should the site collection administrator do to get to the appropriate page?
A. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the second stage Recycle Bin settings to 100 percent.
B. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the first stage Recycle Bin settings to 0 days.
C. Select the Recycle Bin on the Site Settings page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
D. Select the Recycle Bin in the Quick Launch page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that the CloudManager app can write route progress check-ins to the courier’s microfeed.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Ensure that SP.RequestExecutor.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
B. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Manage permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
C. Ensure that the MySite host is provisioned for each franchisee.
D. Ensure that all cookies are made available between the My Site and the CloudManager app domain.
E. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Write permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
F. Ensure that SP.UserProfiles.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
Correct Answer: ABDE

Explanation:
* From scenario:
/ Business Requirements
The FranchiseMonitor app must allow a Franchise employee to upload Appointments.csv to a SharePoint document library in each Franchisee site collection, and send Appointments.csv to the CloudManager app.
/ The FranchiseMonitor app must display the courier’s location on the bicycle courier’s microfeed on the SharePoint farm if the courier has remained stationary for more than three minutes. 70-488 dumps
/ The CloudManager app must implement business logic that parses Appointments.csv and geo- location data and sends Appointments or Appointment cancellations to the CourierMobile app.

QUESTION 4
You need to implement the custom claims provider for the SharePoint farm.
Which code segments should you implement? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
70-488 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
F. Option F
Correct Answer: BDF

Explanation:
* From scenario:
MyClaimsProvider.es
70-488 dumps
QUESTION 5
You need to set the appropriate permissions for the franchise employees’ customer list and customer subsite access.
What should you do?
A. Add franchise employees to the Members group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the franchisee subsite level. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
B. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customers list. Add franchise employees to the custom role at the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the subsite level. Add franchise owners to the Owners group at the subsite level.
C. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customer list. Add franchise employees to the custom role. Allow full inheritance of the role definition and permissions at the site level.
D. Add franchise employees to the Visitors group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the subsite level with Full Control permissions. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You need to create rules in the CourierMobile app based on the ItemType that arrives.
For which ItemTypes should you test? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Tent
B. IPM.Note
C. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Request
D. IPM.Appointment
E. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Cancelled
F. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Pos
G. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Neg
Correct Answer: DE

Explanation:
From scenario:
* The CourierMobile app receives Microsoft Outlook appointments (D) and Outlook appointment cancellations (E) from the CloudManager app. The appointments include the address of the location for pick-up or drop-off.

QUESTION 7
You need to meet the requirements for data storage for the CourierMobile app and the CloudMananger app.
Which technologies should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure SQL Database
B. SharePoint content database
C. Secure Store
D. SQL Server Express LocalDB
E. SharePoint list
Correct Answer: AD

Explanation:
A: SQL Azure in the cloud.
lightweight version of Express that has the same programmability features, but
D: LocalDB is a
it runs in user mode and has a fast, zero-configuration installation and a short list of prerequisites.
From scenario:
* CourierMobile App
The CourierMobile app must be able to capture more than 30 million data points of location data daily as they occur and upload the location data to the cloud when connected to the Internet. 70-488 dumps
* Cloudmanager App
/ The CloudManager app must elastically scale to capture courier location data as the number of bicycle couriers increases or decreases.
/ The CloudManager app must process bicycle courier location data from a data store capable of storing more than 30 million items.

QUESTION 8
You need to create a custom sign-in page to allow the users of the FranchiseMonitor app to authenticate against SharePoint and Margie’s Travel API.
What should you do?
A. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Sandbox solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named FedAuth. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
B. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Farm solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named FedAuth. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
C. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Farm solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named ASPXAUTH. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
D. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Sandbox solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named ASPXAUTH. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You receive an error when you deploy the app.
You need to resolve the error.
What should you do?
A. Create a deployment package and upload the app to the app catalog in SharePoint.
B. Enable side-loading of apps in the app manifest.
C. Deploy the app to https://contoso-my.sharepoint.com.
D. Enable side-loading of apps in the Visual Studio project properties.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
After deploying a solution, a code-based hotfix becomes available.
You need to deploy the hotfix.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Use assembly binding redirection in the web application configuration file.
B. Increment the assembly file version of the assembly.
C. Increment the product version of the assembly.
D. Increment the assembly version of the assembly.
E. Use assembly binding redirection in the assembly policy file.
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:
A:Assembly versions are everywhere in SharePoint web.config files, web part definitions, workflow definitions, event receiver bindings the list goes on. In each case, the version number is absolutely required so that SharePoint can load the code to run at that time. If you update an assembly’s version, you have two choices to ensure your code can still be loaded:
/ Find and update every reference to the previous assembly version.
/ Use a binding redirect in the relevant.config file (e.g. web.config) to point to the new version of the assembly.
C: Assembly Version : This is the version number used by framework during build and at runtime to locate, link and load the assemblies. When you add reference to any assembly in your project, it is this version number which gets embedded. At runtime, CLR looks for assembly with this version number to load. But remember this version is used along with name, public key token and culture information only if the assemblies are strong-named signed. If assemblies are not strong-named signed, only file names are used for loading.
Incorrect:
not B: Assembly File Version : This is the version number given to file as in file system. It is displayed by Windows Explorer. Its never used by .NET framework or runtime for referencing.
From scenario:
* solution artifacts must adhere to industry best practices.
* Code based hot fixes must be deployed directly to the Global Assembly Cache on all SharePoint servers.
* Only one version of an assembly must be available at runtime.

Newest helpful Microsoft MCSD 70-488 dumps exam practice materials in PDF format free download from lead4pass. The best and most updated latest Microsoft MCSD https://www.lead4pass.com/70-488.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 70-488 exam test, and to get certified by Microsoft MCSD, download one of the many PDF readers that are available for free.

High quality Microsoft MCSD 70-488 dumps vce youtube: https://youtu.be/Go3dotkbiEM

[Latest Dumps] Latest Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 Dumps Exam Training Resources And Youtube Shared (Q1-Q15)

Which is the best practice files for Cisco 640-911 exam test? Latest Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 dumps exam training resources in PDF format free download from lead4pass. The best useful Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo update free shared. “Introducing Cisco Data Center Networking” is the name of Cisco CCNA Data Center https://www.lead4pass.com/640-911.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Newest helpful Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 dumps exam questions and answers update free try, pass Cisco 640-911 exam test easily at the first time.

Best Cisco 640-911 dumps pdf training resource: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRN3U2eVlMXzV5RmM

Best Cisco 640-916 dumps pdf training resource: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1gFZ1WNjpe5L0bVKIuDVOj1-xU-zoQE2x
640-911 dumps
QUESTION 1
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Which network device is used to identify and protect against unauthorized traffic and control access to legitimate business-critical data?
A. Stateful firewall
B. Stateless firewall
C. Router
D. Gateway
E. Switch
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. Datagram
B. Routing
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Transport
F. Transmission
G. Session
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
You are designing a network that provides FCoE, FabricPath, OTV, and Layer 3 functionalities. Which device can perform these functionalities?
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
C. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches
D. Cisco ASR 1001 Router
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which three IP addresses are examples of an RFC 1918 address? 640-911 dumps (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.3.1/24
B. 209.165.201.5/27
C. 209.165.200.225/27
D. 10.30.20.1/28
E. 192.168.200.50/24
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 6
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer? (Choose two.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
What is the subnet mask for the network 172.16.0.0/21?
A. 255.255.0.0
B. 255.255.255.240
C. 255.255.248.0
D. 255.255.255.248
E. 255.255.248.240
F. 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two options describe services that are provided by TCP? (Choose two.)
A. session multiplexing
B. EtherTypes identify destination services
C. connection-oriented
D. best-effort packet delivery
E. binary translation
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
In an IPv6 address, how many bits are used for the interface identifier?
A. 48
B. 16
C. 64
D. 128
E. 10
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which two data center technologies are part of the IEEE 802.3 standard for Ethernet-based LANs? (Choose two.)
A. 40 Gb/s
B. 10 Gb/s
C. WLAN
D. Smart Grid
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
Ethernet 1/1 is assigned IP address 10.1.1.1 with subnet mask 255.255.255.0. 640-911 dumps Which configuration is used to configure EIGRP on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?
A. feature eigrp!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0no shutdown!router eigrp 1network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
B. feature eigrp!router eigrp 1autonomous-system 1!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24ip router eigrp 1no shutdown
C. router eigrp 1autonomous-system 1!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24ip router eigrp 1no shutdown
D. feature eigrp!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24no shutdown!router eigrp 1network 10.1.1.00.0.0.255
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18?
A. show running-config switchport e1/18
B. show running-config e1/18 switchport
C. show interface e1/18
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
E. show interface e1/18 native
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
What is the result when two data transmissions are sent at the same time?
A. A collision occurs and both devices stop transmission and back off.
B. A collision occurs and one device retransmits.
C. All traffic continues to transmit.
D. A collision occurs and both devices resend transmissions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
What two statements about functions within the OSI layer model are true? (Choose two.)
A. data at Layer 3 is referred to as a Frame
B. routing function happen at Layer 3
C. network layer is responsible for assigning a MAC address to NIC
D. ARP is a Layer 2 protocol
E. encryption of data happens at the Transport Layer
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 15
Which two options describe what can happen when devices are in the same broadcast domain? (Choose two.)
A. They are on the same VLAN and the same switch.
B. They are on different VLANs and the same switch.
C. They are on different VLANs and different switches.
D. They are on the same VLAN and different switches.
Correct Answer: AD

High quality Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 dumps pdf practice materials and study guides free download from lead4pass. The best and most updated latest Cisco CCNA Data Center https://www.lead4pass.com/640-911.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing 640-911 exam test, and to get certified by Cisco CCNA Data Center, 100% pass guarantee.

Latest Cisco CCNA Data Center 640-911 dumps vce youtube: https://youtu.be/wj_ICIsgbM8

[Latest Dumps] Useful Latest CompTIA Network+ N10-005 Dumps Exam Training Materials And Youtube Update (Q1-Q20)

Latest useful CompTIA Network+ N10-005 dumps exam training materials and vce youtube demo update free shared. Helpful newest CompTIA Network+ N10-005 dumps pdf practice files and study guides free download from lead4pass. “Network + Certification Exam” is the name of CompTIA Network+ https://www.lead4pass.com/N10-005.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real CompTIA exam. High quality CompTIA Network+ N10-005 dumps exam questions and answers update free try, pass CompTIA N10-005 exam test easily at first attempt.

Best useful CompTIA N10-005 dumps pdf training materials: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRMnVzQ3RYbFpjWUk

Best useful CompTIA N10-006 dumps pdf training materials: https://drive.google.com/open?id=0B_7qiYkH83VRY2RQR25WLWc3RjA

QUESTION 1
A user wants to connect seven PCs together for a game night. Which of the following should the user install to help with this task?
A. Media convertor
B. Switch
C. Firewall
D. Bridge
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
They connect multiple PCs, printers, servers and other hardware. Switches allow you to send information, such as email, and access shared resources, including printers, in a smooth, efficient, and transparent manner.

QUESTION 2
Which of the following defines the amount of time a host retains a specific IP address before it is renewed or released?
A. DHCP lease
B. DNS suffix
C. Subnet mask
D. DHCP reservation
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
By default, each IP address assigned by a DHCP Server comes with a one-day lease, which is the amount of time that the address is valid.

QUESTION 3
Users are reporting that some Internet websites are not accessible anymore. Which of the following will allow the network administrator to quickly isolate the remote router that is causing the network communication issue, so that the problem can be reported to the appropriate responsible party?
A. Ping
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Tracert
D. Dig
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Tracet command will tell the administrator which route is not present or which is present so he will come to know whether he has appropriate route or not.

QUESTION 4
Ann, a new user, has a workstation that has connectivity to the printer located in her department, but cannot access the Internet. N10-005 dumps The result of an ipconfig command on Ann’s workstation is as follows:
IP address: 192.168.0.124
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.128
Default Gateway: 192.168.0.254
Which is MOST likely preventing the user from accessing the Internet?
A. Duplicate IP address
B. Incorrect gateway
C. Incorrect VLAN
D. Bad switch port
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
We usually give default gateway as an end device which is directly connected with ISP so in this case user has lost his connectivity with due to wrong default gateway configured.

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the common port used for IMAP?
A. 25
B. 53
C. 143
D. 443
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The Internet Message Access Protocol (commonly known as IMAP) is an Application Layer Internet protocol that allows an e-mail client to access e-mail on a remote mail server. The current version, IMAP version 4 revision 1 (IMAP4rev1), is defined by RFC 3501. An IMAP server typically listens on well-known port 143

QUESTION 6
Which of the following network protocols is used to resolve FQDNs to IP addresses?
A. DNS
B. FTP
C. DHCP
D. APIPA
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
An Internet service that translates domain names into IP addresses. Because domain names are alphabetic, they’re easier to remember. The Internet however, is really based on IP addresses. Every time you use a domain name, therefore, a DNS service must translate the name into the corresponding IP address. For example, the domain name www.example.com might translate to 198.105.232.4.

QUESTION 7
Which of the following network protocols is used to transport email between servers?
A. IMAP4
B. POP3
C. SNMP
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
While electronic mail servers and other mail transfer agents use SMTP to send and receive mail messages, user-level client mail applications typically use SMTP only for sending messages to a mail server for relaying

QUESTION 8
Ann, a technician, installs a new WAP and users are able to connect; however, users cannot access the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The signal strength has been degraded and latency is increasing hop count.
B. An incorrect subnet mask has been entered in the WAP configuration.
C. The signal strength has been degraded and packets are being lost.
D. Users have specified the wrong encryption type and routes are being rejected.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Due to wrong subnet entered user is unable to communicate with anyone so to communicate he needs to be in right subnet.

QUESTION 9
Users have reported issues accessing an Internet website. The network technician wants to verify network layer connectivity. Which of the following tools can provide the verification?
A. ping
B. netstat
C. route
D. arp
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Ping is a computer network administration utility used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol (IP) network and to measure the round-trip time for messages sent from the originating host to a destination computer.

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the FASTEST Ethernet technology? N10-005 dumps
A. 10GBaseSR
B. 10BaseT
C. 100BaseFX
D. 1000BaseT
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
10GBASE-SR (“short range”) is a port type for multi-mode fiber and uses 850 nm lasers. Its Physical Coding Sublayer 64b/66b PCS is defined in IEEE 802.3 Clause 49 and its Physical Medium Dependent PMD in Clause 52. It delivers serialized data at a line rate of 10.3125 Gbit/s.

QUESTION 11
Network upgrades have been completed and the WINS server was shutdown. It was decided that NetBIOS network traffic will no longer be permitted. Which of the following will accomplish this objective?
A. Content filtering
B. Port filtering
C. MAC filtering
D. IP filtering
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
TCP/IP port filtering is the practice of selectively enabling or disabling Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports on computers or network devices. When used in conjunction with other security practices, such as deploying firewall software at your Internet access point, applying port filters to intranet and Internet servers insulates those servers from many TCP/IP-based security attacks, including internal attacks by malicious users.

QUESTION 12
Companies trying to cut down on constant documentation of IP addresses could use which of the following?
A. Longer lease times
B. More reservations
C. Larger scopes
D. Dynamic IP addressing
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
In Dynamic IP addressing all the hosts with private ip address will be patted to the same ip so the administrator will not have to keep track of each and every host with private ip mapped to a static public ip address.

QUESTION 13
Which of the following DHCP properties defines the size of the pool of available IP addresses?
A. Options
B. Scope
C. Leases
D. Reservations
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
A range of IP addresses that are available to be leased to DHCP clients by the DHCP Server service.

QUESTION 14
Which of the following protocols works at the LOWEST layer of the OSI model?
A. L2TP
B. PPTP
C. ISAKMP
D. IPSec
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is an extension of the Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) used by an Internet service provider (ISP) to enable the operation of a virtual private network (VPN) over the Internet.

QUESTION 15
An employee connects to a work computer from home via the built-in Windows remote desktop connection. Which of the following is MOST likely being used to establish the connection?
A. RDP
B. RTP
C. RIP
D. RAS
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft, which provides a user with a graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection. The user employs RDP client software for this purpose, while the other computer must run RDP server software.

QUESTION 16
Discover, Offer, Request, and Acknowledge are the steps for which of the following protocols?
A. DNS
B. DOS
C. DHCP
D. DSL
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
when we install a dhcp server into our network then dhcp server works on the basis of dora process first dhcp server sends a hello message in to the network to discover the clients pc and when any client pc found in the network then, dhcp server offers the IP to client pc. N10-005 dumps When client pc selects any IP from dhcp server then client pc request for selected IP to dhcp server then dhcp server provide that IP to client pc and both send ackonledgement to each other.

QUESTION 17
Which of the following commands displays the routing table on a server or workstation?
A. nbtstat
B. route
C. traceroute
D. nmap
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The route command allows you to make manual entries into the network routing tables. The route command distinguishes between routes to hosts …

QUESTION 18
At which of the following layers of the OSI model does ASCII work?
A. Session
B. Transport
C. Presentation
D. Application
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The presentation layer is responsible for the delivery and formatting of information to the application layer for further processing or display. It relievesthe application layer of concern regarding syntactical differences in data representation within the end-user systems. An example of a presentation service would be the conversion of an EBCDIC-coded text computer file to an ASCII-coded file.

QUESTION 19
Which of the following uses port 23 by default?
A. TELNET
B. IMAP
C. FTP
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Telnet is a network protocol used on the Internet or local area networks to provide a bidirectional interactive text-oriented communication facility using a virtual terminal connection. User data is interspersed in-band with Telnet control information in an 8-bit byte oriented data connection over the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).

QUESTION 20
Assigning the same IP address to a network device is which of the following?
A. SSID
B. Scope
C. Reservation
D. Lease
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
You might want to assign network printers and certain servers DHCP reservations to ensure that they always have the same IP address, but continue to receive updated configuration information from the DHCP server. For example, create reservations for servers that must always have the same IP address.

Useful latest CompTIA Network+ N10-005 dumps exam practice materials in PDF format free download from lead4pass. The best and most updated newest CompTIA Network+ https://www.lead4pass.com/N10-005.html dumps pdf training resources which are the best for clearing N10-005 exam test, and to get certified by CompTIA Network+, 100% success and guarantee to pass.

High quality CompTIA Network+ N10-005 dumps vce youtube: https://youtu.be/ZY0rIqSF5K4