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Table of Contents

  • Download and Prepare Exam
  • Most Recent 300-715 Dumps PDF Questions
  • Cisco Certified Network Professional Security 300-715 Practice Exam
  • Cisco 300-715 Exam Video
  • Why choose Geekcert
  • Geekcert Latest Discount 2020

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Cisco Certified Network Professional Security 300-715 Practice Exam

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit:

Examclasses 300-715 exam questions-q1

Which command is typed within the CU of a switch to view the troubleshooting output?
A. show authentication sessions mac 000e.84af.59af details
B. show authentication registrations
C. show authentication interface gigabitethemet2/0/36
D. show authentication sessions method
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Drag the steps to configure a Cisco ISE node as a primary administration node from the left into the correct order on the
night.
Select and Place:

Examclasses 300-715 exam questions-q2

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/2-4/admin_guide/b_ise_admin_guide_24/b_ise_admin_guide_24_ne
w_Step 1
Choose Administration > System > Deployment.
The Register button will be disabled initially. To enable this button, you must configure a Primary PAN.
Step 2
Check the check box next to the current node, and click Edit.
Step 3
Click Make Primary to configure your Primary PAN.
Step 4
Enter data on the General Settings tab.
Step 5
Click Save to save the node configuration.

QUESTION 3
What are two requirements of generating a single signing in Cisco ISE by using a certificate provisioning portal, without
generating a certificate request? (Choose two )
A. Location the CSV file for the device MAC
B. Select the certificate template
C. Choose the hashing method
D. Enter the common name
E. Enter the IP address of the device
Correct Answer: BD
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/identity-services-engine/200534-ISE-2-0-Certificate-ProvisioningPortal.html

QUESTION 4
Which two ports do network devices typically use for CoA? (Choose two )
A. 443
B. 19005
C. 8080
D. 3799
E. 1700
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 5
Which advanced option within a WLAN must be enabled to trigger Central Web Authentication for Wireless users on
AireOS controller?
A. DHCP server
B. static IP tunneling
C. override Interface ACL
D. AAA override
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which two ports do network devices typically use for CoA? (Choose two )
A. 443
B. 19005
C. 8080
D. 3799
E. 1700
Correct Answer: CE


QUESTION 5
Which advanced option within a WLAN must be enabled to trigger Central Web Authentication for Wireless users on
AireOS controller?
A. DHCP server
B. static IP tunneling
C. override Interface ACL
D. AAA override
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
What service can be enabled on the Cisco ISE node to identity the types of devices connecting to a network?
A. MAB
B. profiling
C. posture
D. central web authentication
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 7
In which two ways can users and endpoints be classified for TrustSec?
(Choose two.)
A. VLAN
B. SXP
C. dynamic
D. QoS
E. SGACL
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 8
A customer is concerned with the use of the issued laptops even when devices are not on the corporate network. Which
agent continues to be operational even when the host is not on the Cisco ISE network?
A. Cisco ISE Agent
B. Cisco NAC Agent
C. Cisco Custom Agent
D. Cisco NAC Web Agent
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
What is a requirement for Feed Service to work?
A. TCP port 3080 must be opened between Cisco ISE and the feed server
B. Cisco ISE has a base license.
C. Cisco ISE has access to an internal server to download feed update
D. Cisco ISE has Internet access to download feed update
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What gives Cisco ISE an option to scan endpoints for vulnerabilities?
A. authorization policy
B. authentication policy
C. authentication profile
D. authorization profile
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
What is the purpose of the ip http server command on a switch?
A. It enables the https server for users for web authentication
B. It enables MAB authentication on the switch
C. It enables the switch to redirect users for web authentication.
D. It enables dot1x authentication on the switch.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
What occurs when a Cisco ISE distributed deployment has two nodes and the secondary node is deregistered?
A. The primary node restarts
B. The secondary node restarts.
C. The primary node becomes standalone
D. Both nodes restart.
Correct Answer: B
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ise/1-1-1/installation_guide/ise_install_guide/ise_deploy.html
if your deployment has two nodes and you deregister the secondary node, both nodes in this primary-secondary pair are
restarted. (The former primary and secondary nodes become standalone.)

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Cisco Certified DevNet Associate 200-901 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the requests from the left into the correct order on the right to create and check the path trace between
two devices using Cisco DNA center API.
Select and Place:

Examclasses 200-901 exam questions-q1

QUESTION 2
Which device is a system that monitors and controls incoming and outgoing network traffic based on predetermined
security roles?
A. router
B. switch
C. load balancer
D. firewall
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
What are the purpose of the Cisco VIRL software tool?
A. to verify configurations against compliance standards
B. to automate API workflows
C. to simulate and model networks
D. to test performance of an application
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.speaknetworks.com/cisco-virl-better-gns3/

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.

Examclasses 200-901 exam questions-q4

Which two statements about the network diagram are true? (Choose two.)
A. The subnet address of PC-B has 18 bits dedicated to the network portion.
B. One of the routers has two connected serial interfaces.
C. R1 and R3 are in the same subnet.
D. PC-A and PC-B are in the same subnet.
E. The subnet of PC-C can contain 256 hosts.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5
What is the benefit of edge computing?
A. It reduces network latency by moving processing closer to the data source.
B. It reduces data velocity from devices or other data sources.
C. It simplifies security as devices and processing are brought closer together.
D. It removes the need for centralized data processing.
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://blogs.cisco.com/networking/time-to-get-serious-about-edge-computing

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

Examclasses 200-901 exam questions-q6

A process on the host wants to access the service running inside this Docker container. Which port is used to make a
connection?
A. only outbound connections between 3000 and 5000 are possible
B. port 3000
C. any port between 3000 and 5000
D. port 5000
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the HTTP methods from the left onto their generally accepted corresponding create, read, update, and
delete operations on the right.

Examclasses 200-901 exam questions-q7

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/cloud-systems-management/application-policy-infrastructure-controller-enterprise-module/1-2-x/config-guide/b_apic-em_config_guide_v_1-2x/b_apicem_config_guide_v_1-2x_chapter_01001.pdf

QUESTION 8
What are two security benefits of a Docker-based application? (Choose two.)
A. natively secures access to secrets that are used by the running application
B. guarantees container images are secured and free of vulnerabilities
C. easier to patch because Docker containers include only dependencies that the application requires
D. prevents information leakage that can occur when unhandled exceptions are returned in HTTP responses
E. allows for separation of applications that traditionally run on the same host
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

Examclasses 200-901 exam questions-q9

Which two statements describe the configuration of the switch after the Ansible script is run? (Choose two.)
A. Traffic from ports 0/2 to 0/5 can flow on port 0/1 due to the trunk.
B. GigabitEthernet0/1 is left unconfigured.
C. GigabitEthernet0/2 and GigabitEthernet0/3 are access ports for VLAN 6.
D. Traffic can flow between ports 0/2 to 0/5 due to the trunk on port 0/1.
E. Traffic on ports 0/2 and 0/3 is connected to port 0/6.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 10
What is the outcome of executing this command?
git clone ssh:/[email protected]/path/to/my-project.git
A. creates a local copy of a repository called “my-project”
B. initiates a new Git repository called “my-project”
C. creates a copy of a branch called “my-project”
D. creates a new branch called “my-project”
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.atlassian.com/git/tutorials/setting-up-a-repository/git-clone


QUESTION 11
An application calls a REST API and expects a result set of more than 550 records, but each time the call is made, only
25 are returned. Which feature limits the amount of data that is returned by the API?
A. pagination
B. payload limit
C. service timeouts
D. rate limiting
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://stackoverflow.com/questions/1495541/rest-payload-max-size

QUESTION 12
When a Cisco IOS XE networking device is configured using RESTCONF, what is the default data-encoding method?
A. YANG
B. YAML
C. XML
D. x-form-encoding
Correct Answer: A
Reference https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/166/b_166_programmability_cg/restconf_prog_int.html

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Latest Cisco CCNA 200-301 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
What are two southbound APIs? (Choose two )
A. OpenFlow
B. NETCONF
C. Thrift
D. CORBA
E. DSC
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 2
An email user has been lured into clicking a link in an email sent by their company\\’s security organization. The
webpage that opens reports that it was safe but the link could have contained malicious code.
Which type of security program is in place?
A. Physical access control
B. Social engineering attack
C. brute force attack
D. user awareness
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Drag and drop each broadcast IP address on the left to the Broadcast Address column on the right. Not all options are
used.
Select and Place:

Examclasses 200-301 exam questions-q3

QUESTION 4
A user configured OSPF and advertised the Gigabit Ethernet interface in OSPF, by default, which type of OSPF network
does this interface belong to?
A. point-to-multipoint
B. point-to-point
C. broadcast
D. nonbroadcast
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is the default behavior of a Layer 2 switch when a frame with an unknown destination MAC address is received?
A. The Layer 2 switch drops the received frame.
B. The Layer 2 switch floods packets to all ports except the receiving port in the given VLAN.
C. The Layer 2 switch sends a copy of a packet to CPU for destination MAC address learning.
D. The Layer 2 switch forwards the packet and adds the destination MAC address to its MAC address table.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which network allows devices to communicate without the need to access the Internet?
A. 1729.0.0/16
B. 172.28.0.0/16
C. 192.0.0.0/8
D. 209.165.201.0/24
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

Examclasses 200-301 exam questions-q7

Which command provides this output?
A. show ip route
B. show ip interface
C. show interface
D. show cdp neighbor
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which feature on the Cisco Wireless LAN Controller when enabled restricts management access from specific
networks?
A. CPUACL
B. TACACS
C. Flex ACL
D. RADIUS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

Examclasses 200-301 exam questions-q9

If OSPF is running on this network, how does Router 2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13/25 at Site A?
A. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/2 only.
B. It sends packets out of interface Fa0/1 only.
C. It cannot send packets to 10.10.13 128/25.
D. It load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
When a site-to-site VPN is used, which protocol is responsible for the transport of user data?
A. IKEv2
B. IKEv1
C. IPsec
D. MD5
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
What is the primary effect of the spanning-tree portfast command?
A. it enables BPDU messages
B. It minimizes spanning-tree convergence time
C. It immediately puts the port into the forwarding state when the switch is reloaded
D. It immediately enables the port in the listening state
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

Examclasses 200-301 exam questions-q12

Which prefix does Router 1 use for traffic to Host A?
A. 10.10.10.0/28
B. 10.10.13.0/25
C. 10.10.13.144/28
D. 10.10.13.208/29
Correct Answer: C

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[Latest Dumps] Best EXIN ITIL EX0-117 Dumps Exam Practice Questions And Answers Update (Q1-Q30)

Best EXIN ITIL EX0-117 dumps exam practice questions and answers download free try from lead4pass. High quality latest EXIN ITIL EX0-117 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo update free shared. “ITIL Foundation (syllabus 2011)” is the name of EXIN ITIL https://www.lead4pass.com/ex0-117.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real EXIN exam. Useful latest EXIN ITIL EX0-117 dumps pdf training resources and study guides free download, pass EXIN EX0-117 exam test quickly and easily.

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EX0-117 dumps

EXIN ITIL EX0-117 Dumps Exam Real Practice Questions And Answers (Q1-Q30)

QUESTION 1
Which role is responsible for carrying out the activities of a process?
A. Process owner
B. Change manager
C. Service manager
D. Process practitioner
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which process or function is responsible for monitoring activities and events in the IT infrastructure?
A. Service level management
B. IT operations management
C. Capacity management
D. Incident management
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following options is a hierarchy that is used in knowledge management?
A. Wisdom – Information – Data – Knowledge
B. Data – Information – Knowledge – Wisdom
C. Knowledge – Wisdom – Information – Data
D. Information – Data – Knowledge – Wisdom
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
At which stage of the service lifecycle should the processes necessary to operate a new service be defined?
A. Service design: Design the processes
B. Service strategy: Develop the offerings
C. Service transition: Plan and prepare for deployment
D. Service operation: IT operations management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Why are public frameworks, such as 1TIL, attractive when compared to proprietary knowledge?
A. Proprietary knowledge may be difficult to adopt, replicate or transfer since it is often undocumented
B. Public frameworks are always cheaper to adopt
C. Public frameworks are prescriptive and tell you exactly what to do
D. Proprietary knowledge has been tested in a wide range of environments
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following is an objective of business relationship management?
A. To identify patterns of business activity
B. To ensure high levels of customer satisfaction
C. To secure funding to manage the provision of services
D. To ensure strategic plans for IT services exist
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
The design of IT services requires the effective and efficient use of “the four Ps”. EX0-117 dumps What are these four Ps?
A. People, process, partners, performance
B. Performance, process, products, plans
C. People, process, products, partners
D. People, products, plans, partners
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following BEST describes service strategies value to the business?
A. Allows higher volumes of successful change
B. Reduction in unplanned costs through optimized handling of service outages
C. Reduction in the duration and frequency of service outages
D. Enabling the service provider to have a clear understanding of what levels of service will make their customers successful
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
Which two processes will contribute MOST to enabling effective problem detection?
A. Incident and financial management
B. Change and release and deployment management
C. Incident and event management
D. Knowledge and service level management
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which of the following would be used to communicate a high level description of a major change that involved significant cost and risk to the organization?
A. Change proposal
B. Change policy
C. Service request
D. Risk register
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which of the following should be documented in an incident model?
1. Details of the service level agreement (SLA) pertaining to the incident
2. Chronological order of steps to resolve the incident
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Why is it important for service providers to understand patterns of business activity (PBA)?
A. PBA are based on organizational roles and responsibilities
B. IT service providers CANNOT schedule changes until they understand PBA
C. Demand for the services delivered by service providers are directly influenced by PBA
D. Understanding PBA is the only way to enable accurate service level reporting
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which one of the following would NOT be defined as part of every process?
A. Roles
B. Inputs and outputs
C. Functions
D. Metrics
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which process is responsible for recording the current details, status, interfaces and dependencies of all services that are being run or being prepared to run in the live environment?
A. Service level management
B. Service catalogue management
C. Demand management
D. Service transition
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 15
A process owner has been identified with an “I” in a RACI matrix. Which one of the following would be expected of them?
A. Be accountable for the outcome of an activity
B. Perform an activity
C. Be kept up-to-date on the progress of an activity
D. Manage an activity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which of the following are objectives of service level management?
1: Defining, documenting and agreeing the level of FT services to be provided
2: Monitoring, measuring and reporting the actual level of services provided
3: Monitoring and improving customer satisfaction
4: Identifying possible future markets that the service provider could operate in
A. 1, 2 and 3 only
B. 1 and 2 only
C. 1, 2 and 4 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which one of the following do technology metrics measure?
A. Components
B. Processes
C. The end-to-end service
D. Customer satisfaction
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
Which process includes business, service and component sub-processes?
A. Capacity management
B. Incident management
C. Service level management
D. Financial management
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
Which one of the following is NOT part of the service design stage of the service lifecycle?
A. Designing and maintaining all necessary service transition packages
B. Producing quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services
C. Taking service strategies and ensuring they are reflected in the service design processes and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of service design and the supporting processes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
What is the result of carrying out an activity, following a process or delivering an IT service known as? EX0-117 dumps
A. Outcome
B. Incident
C. Change
D. Problem
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
Which process is responsible for managing relationships with vendors?
A. Change management
B. Service portfolio management
C. Supplier management
D. Continual service improvement
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 22
Which of the following service desk organizational structures are described in service operation?
1. Local service desk
2. Virtual service desk
3. IT help desk
4. Follow the sun
A. 1, 2 and 4 only
B. 2, 3 and 4 only
C. 1, 3 and 4 only
D. 1, 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
What are the categories of event described in the UIL service operation book?
A. Informational, scheduled, normal
B. Scheduled, unscheduled, emergency
C. Informational, warning, exception
D. Warning, reactive, proactive
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 24
What would you call the groups of people who have an interest in the activities, targets, resources and deliverables from service management?
A. Employers
B. Stakeholders
C. Regulators
D. Accreditors
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 25
Which of the following are the MAIN objectives of incident management?
1. To automatically detect service-affecting events
2. To restore normal service operation as quickly as possible
3. To minimize adverse impacts on business operations
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 26
What is the name of the group that should review changes that must be implemented faster than the normal change process?
A. Technical management
B. Emergency change advisory board
C. Urgent change board
D. Urgent change authority
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 27
Which of the following is NOT an objective of service transition?
A. To ensure that a service can be operated, managed and supported
B. To provide training and certification in project management
C. To provide quality knowledge and information about services and service assets
D. To plan and manage the capacity and resource requirements to manage a release
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which of the following types of service should be included in the scope of service portfolio management?
1. Those planned to be delivered
2. Those being delivered
3. Those that have been withdrawn from service
A. 1 and 3 only
B. All of the above
C. 1 and 2 only
D. 2 and 3 only
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 29
The BEST description of an incident is:
A. An unplanned disruption of service unless there is a backup to that service
B. An unplanned interruption to service or a reduction in the quality of service
C. Any disruption to service whether planned or unplanned
D. Any disruption to service that is reported to the service desk, regardless of whether the service is impacted or not
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 30
EX0-117 dumps Which one of the following is the CORRECT set of steps for the continual service improvement approach?
A. Devise a strategy; Design the solution; Transition into production; Operate the solution; Continually improve
B. Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; How do we check we arrived?; How do we keep the momentum going?
C. Identify the required business outcomes; Plan how to achieve the outcomes; Implement the plan; Check the plan has been properly implemented; Improve the solution
D. What is the vision?; Where are we now?; Where do we want to be?; How do we get there?; Did we get there?; How do we keep the momentum going?
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
A user wants to connect seven PCs together for a game night. Which of the following should the user install to help with this task?
A. Media convertor
B. Switch
C. Firewall
D. Bridge
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
They connect multiple PCs, printers, servers and other hardware. Switches allow you to send information, such as email, and access shared resources, including printers, in a smooth, efficient, and transparent manner.

QUESTION 2
Which of the following defines the amount of time a host retains a specific IP address before it is renewed or released?
A. DHCP lease
B. DNS suffix
C. Subnet mask
D. DHCP reservation
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
By default, each IP address assigned by a DHCP Server comes with a one-day lease, which is the amount of time that the address is valid.

QUESTION 3
Users are reporting that some Internet websites are not accessible anymore. Which of the following will allow the network administrator to quickly isolate the remote router that is causing the network communication issue, so that the problem can be reported to the appropriate responsible party?
A. Ping
B. Protocol analyzer
C. Tracert
D. Dig
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
Tracet command will tell the administrator which route is not present or which is present so he will come to know whether he has appropriate route or not.

QUESTION 4
Ann, a new user, has a workstation that has connectivity to the printer located in her department, but cannot access the Internet. N10-005 dumps The result of an ipconfig command on Ann’s workstation is as follows:
IP address: 192.168.0.124
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.128
Default Gateway: 192.168.0.254
Which is MOST likely preventing the user from accessing the Internet?
A. Duplicate IP address
B. Incorrect gateway
C. Incorrect VLAN
D. Bad switch port
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
We usually give default gateway as an end device which is directly connected with ISP so in this case user has lost his connectivity with due to wrong default gateway configured.

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is the common port used for IMAP?
A. 25
B. 53
C. 143
D. 443
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The Internet Message Access Protocol (commonly known as IMAP) is an Application Layer Internet protocol that allows an e-mail client to access e-mail on a remote mail server. The current version, IMAP version 4 revision 1 (IMAP4rev1), is defined by RFC 3501. An IMAP server typically listens on well-known port 143

QUESTION 6
Which of the following network protocols is used to resolve FQDNs to IP addresses?
A. DNS
B. FTP
C. DHCP
D. APIPA
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
An Internet service that translates domain names into IP addresses. Because domain names are alphabetic, they’re easier to remember. The Internet however, is really based on IP addresses. Every time you use a domain name, therefore, a DNS service must translate the name into the corresponding IP address. For example, the domain name www.example.com might translate to 198.105.232.4.

QUESTION 7
Which of the following network protocols is used to transport email between servers?
A. IMAP4
B. POP3
C. SNMP
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
While electronic mail servers and other mail transfer agents use SMTP to send and receive mail messages, user-level client mail applications typically use SMTP only for sending messages to a mail server for relaying

QUESTION 8
Ann, a technician, installs a new WAP and users are able to connect; however, users cannot access the Internet. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the problem?
A. The signal strength has been degraded and latency is increasing hop count.
B. An incorrect subnet mask has been entered in the WAP configuration.
C. The signal strength has been degraded and packets are being lost.
D. Users have specified the wrong encryption type and routes are being rejected.
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
Due to wrong subnet entered user is unable to communicate with anyone so to communicate he needs to be in right subnet.

QUESTION 9
Users have reported issues accessing an Internet website. The network technician wants to verify network layer connectivity. Which of the following tools can provide the verification?
A. ping
B. netstat
C. route
D. arp
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Ping is a computer network administration utility used to test the reachability of a host on an Internet Protocol (IP) network and to measure the round-trip time for messages sent from the originating host to a destination computer.

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is the FASTEST Ethernet technology? N10-005 dumps
A. 10GBaseSR
B. 10BaseT
C. 100BaseFX
D. 1000BaseT
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
10GBASE-SR (“short range”) is a port type for multi-mode fiber and uses 850 nm lasers. Its Physical Coding Sublayer 64b/66b PCS is defined in IEEE 802.3 Clause 49 and its Physical Medium Dependent PMD in Clause 52. It delivers serialized data at a line rate of 10.3125 Gbit/s.

QUESTION 11
Network upgrades have been completed and the WINS server was shutdown. It was decided that NetBIOS network traffic will no longer be permitted. Which of the following will accomplish this objective?
A. Content filtering
B. Port filtering
C. MAC filtering
D. IP filtering
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
TCP/IP port filtering is the practice of selectively enabling or disabling Transmission Control Protocol (TCP) ports and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports on computers or network devices. When used in conjunction with other security practices, such as deploying firewall software at your Internet access point, applying port filters to intranet and Internet servers insulates those servers from many TCP/IP-based security attacks, including internal attacks by malicious users.

QUESTION 12
Companies trying to cut down on constant documentation of IP addresses could use which of the following?
A. Longer lease times
B. More reservations
C. Larger scopes
D. Dynamic IP addressing
Correct Answer: D

Explanation:
In Dynamic IP addressing all the hosts with private ip address will be patted to the same ip so the administrator will not have to keep track of each and every host with private ip mapped to a static public ip address.

QUESTION 13
Which of the following DHCP properties defines the size of the pool of available IP addresses?
A. Options
B. Scope
C. Leases
D. Reservations
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
A range of IP addresses that are available to be leased to DHCP clients by the DHCP Server service.

QUESTION 14
Which of the following protocols works at the LOWEST layer of the OSI model?
A. L2TP
B. PPTP
C. ISAKMP
D. IPSec
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is an extension of the Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) used by an Internet service provider (ISP) to enable the operation of a virtual private network (VPN) over the Internet.

QUESTION 15
An employee connects to a work computer from home via the built-in Windows remote desktop connection. Which of the following is MOST likely being used to establish the connection?
A. RDP
B. RTP
C. RIP
D. RAS
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft, which provides a user with a graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection. The user employs RDP client software for this purpose, while the other computer must run RDP server software.

QUESTION 16
Discover, Offer, Request, and Acknowledge are the steps for which of the following protocols?
A. DNS
B. DOS
C. DHCP
D. DSL
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
when we install a dhcp server into our network then dhcp server works on the basis of dora process first dhcp server sends a hello message in to the network to discover the clients pc and when any client pc found in the network then, dhcp server offers the IP to client pc. N10-005 dumps When client pc selects any IP from dhcp server then client pc request for selected IP to dhcp server then dhcp server provide that IP to client pc and both send ackonledgement to each other.

QUESTION 17
Which of the following commands displays the routing table on a server or workstation?
A. nbtstat
B. route
C. traceroute
D. nmap
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
The route command allows you to make manual entries into the network routing tables. The route command distinguishes between routes to hosts …

QUESTION 18
At which of the following layers of the OSI model does ASCII work?
A. Session
B. Transport
C. Presentation
D. Application
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
The presentation layer is responsible for the delivery and formatting of information to the application layer for further processing or display. It relievesthe application layer of concern regarding syntactical differences in data representation within the end-user systems. An example of a presentation service would be the conversion of an EBCDIC-coded text computer file to an ASCII-coded file.

QUESTION 19
Which of the following uses port 23 by default?
A. TELNET
B. IMAP
C. FTP
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: A

Explanation:
Telnet is a network protocol used on the Internet or local area networks to provide a bidirectional interactive text-oriented communication facility using a virtual terminal connection. User data is interspersed in-band with Telnet control information in an 8-bit byte oriented data connection over the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).

QUESTION 20
Assigning the same IP address to a network device is which of the following?
A. SSID
B. Scope
C. Reservation
D. Lease
Correct Answer: C

Explanation:
You might want to assign network printers and certain servers DHCP reservations to ensure that they always have the same IP address, but continue to receive updated configuration information from the DHCP server. For example, create reservations for servers that must always have the same IP address.

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QUESTION 1
Identify the statement which correctly describes the output of the following command: diagnose ips anomaly list
A. Lists the configured DoS policy.
B. List the real-time counters for the configured DoS policy.
C. Lists the errors captured when compiling the DoS policy.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Examine the following CLI configuration: config system session-ttl set default 1800 end What statement is true about the effect of the above configuration line?
A. Sessions can be idle for no more than 1800 seconds.
B. The maximum length of time a session can be open is 1800 seconds.
C. After 1800 seconds, the end user must re-authenticate.
D. After a session has been open for 1800 seconds, the FortiGate sends a keepalive packet to both client and server.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Review the output of the command get router info routing-table database shown in the Exhibit below; then answer the question following it.
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Which of the following statements are correct regarding this output? (Select all that apply).
A. There will be six routes in the routing table.
B. There will be seven routes in the routing table.
C. There will be two default routes in the routing table.
D. There will be two routes for the 10.0.2.0/24 subnet in the routing table.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 4
An issue could potentially occur when clicking Connect to start tunnel mode SSL VPN. The tunnel will start up for a few seconds, then shut down. Which of the following statements best describes how to resolve this issue?
A. This user does not have permission to enable tunnel mode. Make sure that the tunnel mode widget has been added to that user\’s web portal.
B. This FortiGate unit may have multiple Internet connections. To avoid this problem, use the appropriate CLI command to bind the SSL VPN connection to the original incoming interface.
C. Check the SSL adaptor on the host machine. If necessary, uninstall and reinstall the adaptor from the tunnel mode portal.
D. Make sure that only Internet Explorer is used. All other browsers are unsupported.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
The order of the firewall policies is important. Policies can be re-ordered from either the GUI or the CLI. Which CLI command is used to perform this function?
A. set order
B. edit policy
C. reorder
D. move
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
The following diagnostic output is displayed in the CLI: diag firewall auth list policy iD. 9, srC. 192.168.3.168, action: accept, timeout: 13427 user: forticlient_chk_only, group: flag (80020): auth timeout_ext, flag2 (40): exact group iD. 0, av group: 0 —– 1 listed, 0 filtered —–Based on this output, which of the following statements is correct?
A. Firewall policy 9 has endpoint compliance enabled but not firewall authentication.
B. The client check that is part of an SSL VPN connection attempt failed.
C. This user has been associated with a guest profile as evidenced by the group id of 0.
D. An auth-keepalive value has been enabled.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which of the following statements correctly describes how a push update from the FortiGuard Distribution Network (FDN) works? NSE4 dumps
A. The FDN sends push updates only once.
B. The FDN sends package updates automatically to the FortiGate unit without requiring an update request.
C. The FDN continues to send push updates until the FortiGate unit sends an acknowledgement.
D. The FDN sends a message to the FortiGate unit that there is an update available and that the FortiGate unit should download the update.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An administrator has formed a High Availability cluster involving two FortiGate 310B units. [Multiple upstream Layer 2 switches] — [ FortiGate HA Cluster ] – [ Multiple downstream Layer 2 switches ] The administrator wishes to ensure that a single link failure will have minimal impact upon the overall throughput of traffic through this cluster.
Which of the following Options describes the best step the administrator can take? The administrator should…
A. set up a full-mesh design which uses redundant interface.
B. increase the number of FortiGate units in the cluster and configure HA in Active-Active mode.
C. enable monitoring of all active interface.
D. configure the HA ping server feature to allow for HA failover in the event that a path is disrupted.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
A FortiAnalyzer device could use which security method to secure the transfer of log data from FortiGate devices?
A. SSL
B. IPSec
C. direct serial connection
D. S/MIME
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What capabilities can a FortiGate provide? (Choose three.)
A. Mail relay.
B. Email filtering.
C. Firewall.
D. VPN gateway.
E. Mail server.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 11
Identify the correct properties of a partial mesh VPN deployment:
A. VPN tunnels interconnect between every single location.
B. VPN tunnels are not configured between every single location.
C. Some locations are reached via a hub location.
D. There are no hub locations in a partial mesh.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 12
With FSSO, a domain user could authenticate either against the domain controller running the Collector Agent and Domain Controller Agent, or a domain controller running only the Domain Controller Agent. If you attempt to authenticate with the Secondary Domain Controller running only the Domain Controller Agent, which of the following statements are correct? (Select all that apply.)
A. The login event is sent to the Collector Agent.
B. The FortiGate unit receives the user information from the Domain Controller Agent of the Secondary Controller.
C. The Collector Agent performs the DNS lookup for the authenticated client\’s IP address.
D. The user cannot be authenticated with the FortiGate device in this manner because each Domain Controller Agent requires a dedicated Collector Agent.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 13
A client can create a secure connection to a FortiGate using SSL VPN in web-only mode. Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the use of web-only mode SSL VPN?
A. Web-only mode supports SSL version 3 only.
B. A Fortinet-supplied plug-in is required on the web client to use web-only mode SSL VPN.
C. Web-only mode requires the user to have a web browser that supports 64-bit cipher length.
D. The JAVA run-ti environment must be installed on the client to be able to connect to a web-only mode SSL VPN.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which of the following describes the best custom signature for detecting the use of the word andquot;Fortinetandquot; in chat applications?
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A. The sample packet trace illustrated in the exhibit provides details on the packet that requires detection. F-SBID(–prot ocoltcp;–flowfrom_client;–patternandquot;X-MMS-IM-Formatandquot;;–patternandquot;fortinetandquot;;–no_case;)
B. F-SBID(–protocol tcp;–flow from_client;–patternandquot;fortinetandquot;;–no_case;)
C. F-SBID( –protocol tcp; –flow from_client; –pattern andquot;X-MMS-IM-Formatandquot;; –pattern andquot;fortinetandquot;; –within 20; — no_case; )
D. F-SBID(–protocoltcp;–flowfrom_client;–patternandquot;X-MMS-IMFormatandquot;;–patternandquot;fortinetandquot;;–within20;)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
How can DLP file filters be configured to detect Office 2010 files? (Select all that apply.)
A. File TypE. Microsoft Office(msOffice)
B. File TypE. Archive(zip)
C. File TypE. Unknown Filetype(unknown)
D. File NamE. andquot;.pptandquot;, andquot;.docandquot;, andquot;.xlsandquot;
E. File NamE. andquot;.pptxandquot;, andquot;.docxandquot;, andquot;.xlsxandquot;
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 16
An administrator configures a FortiGate unit in Transparent mode on the 192.168.11.0 subnet. Automatic Discovery is enabled to detect any available FortiAnalyzers on the network.
Which of the following FortiAnalyzers will be detected? (Select all that apply.)
A. 192.168.11.100
B. 192.168.11.251
C. 192.168.10.100
D. 192.168.10.251
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 17
Review the IPsec phase1 configuration in the Exhibit shown below; then answer the question following it.
NSE4 dumps
Which of the following statements are correct regarding this configuration? NSE4 dumps (Select all that apply).
A. The phase1 is for a route-based VPN configuration.
B. The phase1 is for a policy-based VPN configuration.
C. The local gateway IP is the address assigned to port1.
D. The local gateway IP address is 10.200.3.1.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 18
What is the maximum number of FortiAnalyzer/FortiManager devices a FortiGate unit can be configured to send logs to?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
In an IPSec gateway-to-gateway configuration, two FortiGate units create a VPN tunnel between two separate private networks.
Which of the following configuration steps must be performed on both FortiGate units to support this configuration? (Select all that apply.)
A. Create firewall policies to control traffic between the IP source and destination address.
B. Configure the appropriate user groups on the Fortigate units to allow users access to the IPSec VPN connection.
C. Set the operating mode of the FortiGate unit to IPSec VPN mode.
D. Define the Phase 2 parameters that the FortiGate unit needs to create a VPN tunnel with the remote peer.
E. Define the Phase 1 parameters that the FortiGate unit needs to authenticate the remote peers.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 20
Review the IPsec Phase2 configuration shown in the Exhibit; then answer the question following it.
NSE4 dumps
Which of the following statements are correct regarding this configuration? (Select all that apply).
A. The Phase 2 will re-key even if there is no traffic.
B. There will be a DH exchange for each re-key.
C. The sequence number of ESP packets received from the peer will not be checked.
D. Quick mode selectors will default to those used in the firewall policy.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 21
Which of the following items is NOT a packet characteristic matched by a firewall service object?
A. ICMP type and code
B. TCP/UDP source and destination ports
C. IP protocol number
D. TCP sequence number
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
An administrator wishes to generate a report showing Top Traffic by service type. They notice that web traffic overwhelms the pie chart and want to exclude the web traffic from the report.
Which of the following statements best describes how to do this?
A. In the Service field of the Data Filter, type 80/tcp and select the NOT checkbox.
B. AddthefollowingentrytotheGenericFieldsectionoftheDataFilter:serviceandquot;webandquot;.
C. When editing the chart, uncheck wlog to indicate that Web Filtering data is being excluded when generating the chart.
D. When editing the chart, enter \’http\’ in the Exclude Service field.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 23
Which header field can be used in a firewall policy for traffic matching?
A. ICMP type and code.
B. DSCP.
C. TCP window size.
D. TCP sequence number.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which statements are true regarding local user authentication? (Choose two.)
A. Two-factor authentication can be enabled on a per user basis.
B. Local users are for administration accounts only and cannot be used to authenticate network users.
C. Administrators can create the user accounts is a remote server and store the user passwords locally in the FortiGate.
D. Both the usernames and passwords can be stored locally on the FortiGate
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 25
Which of the following cannot be used in conjunction with the endpoint compliance check?
A. HTTP Challenge Redirect to a Secure Channel (HTTPS) in the Authentication Settings.
B. Any form of firewall policy authentication.
C. WAN optimization.
D. Traffic shaping.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 26
If no firewall policy is specified between two FortiGate interface and zones are not used, which of the following statements describes the action taken on traffic fllowing between these interface?
A. The traffic is blocked.
B. The traffic is passed.
C. The traffic is passed and logged.
D. The traffic is blocked and logged.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A FortiGate unit is configured with three Virtual Domains (VDOMs) as illustrated in the exhibit.
NSE4 dumps
Which of the following statements are correct regarding these VDOMs? (Select all that apply.)
A. The FortiGate unit supports any combination of these VDOMs in NAT/Route and Transparent modes.
B. The FortiGate unit must be a model 1000 or above to support multiple VDOMs.
C. A license had to be purchased and applied to the FortiGate unit before VDOM mode could be enabled.
D. All VDOMs must operate in the same mode.
E. Changing a VDOM operational mode requires a reboot of the FortiGate unit.
F. An admin account can be assigned to one VDOM or it can have access to all three VDOMs.
Correct Answer: AF

QUESTION 28
Which of the following DLP actions will always be performed if it is selected? NSE4 dumps
A. Archive
B. Quarantine Interface
C. Ban Sender
D. Block
E. None
F. Ban
G. Quarantine IP Address
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
Which statements are correct regarding virtual domains (VDOMs)? (Choose two.)
A. VDOMs divide a single FortiGate unit into two or more virtual units that each have dedicated memory and CPUs.
B. A management VDOM handles SNMP, logging, alert email, and FDN-based updates.
C. VDOMs share firmware versions, as well as antivirus and IPS databases.
D. Different time zones can be configured in each VDOM.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 30
Examine the static route configuration shown below; then answer the question following it. config router static edit 1 set dst 172.20.1.0 255.255.255.0 set device port1 set gateway 172.11.12.1 set distance 10 set weight 5 next edit 2 set dst 172.20.1.0 255.255.255.0 set blackhole enable set distance 5 set weight 10 next end Which of the following statements correctly describes the static routing configuration provided? (Select all that apply.)
A. All traffic to 172.20.1.0/24 will always be dropped by the FortiGate unit.
B. As long as port1 is up, all the traffic to 172.20.1.0/24 will be routed by the static route number 1. If the interface port1 is down, the traffic will be routed using the blackhole route.
C. The FortiGate unit will NOT create a session entry in the session table when the traffic is being routed by the blackhole route.
D. The FortiGate unit will create a session entry in the session table when the traffic is being routed by the blackhole route.
E. Traffic to 172.20.1.0/24 will be shared through both routes.
Correct Answer: AC

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QUESTION 1
You need to configure filtering for the Product page.
Which filtering option should you use?
A. products/pages/products.aspx?productID=*&.productCategory=*
B. products.aspx;productID;productCategory; lucernepublishing.com
C. products; productID; productCategory; lucernepublishing.com
D. products/pages/products.aspx?*
E. productID;productCategory
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
You create a custom Visual Web Part. You deploy the solution package to the farm by using Windows PowerShell. When you try to add the custom Visual Web Part to a SharePoint site, an error message displays that includes a correlation ID.
You need to determine the cause of the error.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Run the Get-SPLogEvent Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
B. Run the Get-SPDiagnosticConfig Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Run the Get-SPHealthAnalysisRule Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
D. View the Service Calls tab on the Developer Dashboard.
E. View the Unified Logging Service (ULS) tab on the Developer Dashboard.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 3
You need to implement caching in your code.
Which caching option should you use?
A. Object Cache
B. Distributed Cache
C. Windows Server AppFabric Cache
D. ASP.NET cache
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You need to resolve the image loading issue.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Set the size of the site collection object cache to at least 100 MB.
B. Enable the binary large object (BLOB) cache on each front-end web server.
C. Activate the Content Organizer site feature.
D. Enable authenticated cache profiles for the site output cache.
E. Enable publishing features for the site collection.
F. Set the default device channel to the active channel.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
You need to raise the visibility of the sites.
What should you do?
A. Enable the Reports and Data Search feature for the site collection.
B. Create a custom timer job that generates the SiteMap.xml file in the root directory of the web application.
C. Add a Script Editor Web Part to the landing page of the publishing site. In the web part, enter the location of the SiteMap.xml file.
D. In Internet Information Services (IIS), enable the SiteMap ISAPI filter for the web application.
E. Enable the Search Engine Sitemap Site Collection feature for the site collection.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
You need to implement connection management for catalog connections.
Which method should you use? 070-489 dumps (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Public void UpdateCatalogConnection(CatalogConnectionSettingscatalogInfo)
B. Public void OnPublishCatalog(string catalogPath)
C. Public void DeleteCatalogConnection(string catalogPath)
D. Public void SetCatalogConnection(string catalogPath, boot disconnect)
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
You need to ensure that the data synchronization does not affect the end user experience on the intranet.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
070-489 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
You need to implement logging.
Which items should you implement? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SPDiagnosticsServiceBase.WriteEvent
B. Microsoft.SharePoint.Diagnostics.ULSLogEntry
C. SPUser.Sid
D. PortalLog.LogString
E. SPAlertTemplate
F. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 9
You need to retrieve the required performance counters.
What should you do?
070-489 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You need to implement the social maintenance tool.
How should you complete the relevant code? 70-489 dumps (To answer, select the appropriate option from each dropdown list in the answer area.)
070-489 dumps
Hot Area:
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 11
You need to notify Windows phone users about the new Windows phone app.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 12
You need to configure the external content type to search for research papers.
Which indexing connector should you use?
A. .NET Type Connector
B. WCF Service Connector
C. Custom Connector
D. SQL Server Connector
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You need to ensure that users can upload pictures.
Which code segment should you insert at line MP57?
070-489 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
You need to create the external content type to support the data model.
In the Return Parameter Configuration dialog box, in the properties section, which options should you select? (To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 15
You need to add code to line MP22 to create the custom profile property.
How should you complete the relevant code? 70-489 dumps (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 16
You need to ensure that employees can change their display name.
Which object model should you use?
A. Use the server-side object model.
B. Use a Representational State Transfer (REST) based service.
C. Use the JavaScript object model.
D. Use the .Net client-side object model.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
You need to search for research papers that contain media files.
What should you do? {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
You need to configure the Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service.
What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You need to configure authentication to access the SQL data source during development.
Which authentication mechanism should you use?
A. Impersonated Windows Identity
B. Pass Through
C. Impersonated Custom Identity
D. Forms Based Authentication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
You need to generate document identifiers for each new document that is uploaded to the site.
What should you do?
A. Create a derived class that inherits from the abstract class named Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.Documentld and then override all of the abstract methods.
B. Create a derived class that inherits from the abstract class named Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.DocumentldProvider and then override all of the virtual members.
C. Create a derived class that inherits from the Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.DocumentldProvider abstract class and then implement all abstract members.
D. Create a class to implement the Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.IDocumentld interface and then override all of the virtual members.
Correct Answer: B

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2019 AZ-400 exam study guide | AZ-400 study materials

Microsoft Azure certification exam preparation guide

Azure DevOps has a new Microsoft exam, exam AZ-400. There are definitely a lot of questions about this exam. Here are the answers for everyone.

Microsoft Azure certification

  • What is AZ-400?
  • Who should take this exam?
  • Is the AZ-400 difficult?
  • What are the prerequisites for the AZ-400 exam?
  • How do you participate in the az-400 test?
  • How to prepare for the AZ-400 exam?
  • Which books do you recommend?

What is AZ-400?

Microsoft Azure DevOps Solutions

Azure DevOps Solutions is one of the new role-based Azure certifications that validates the skills of azure DevOps professionals. AZ-400 exam study guide, the “AZ-400”, that makes a candidate a Microsoft Certified Azure DevOps Professional.

List of candidates who have obtained this certification:

Candidates for this exam are DevOps professionals.

Is the AZ-400 difficult?

It’s very difficult. Pass Microsoft Azure AZ-400 Exam Questions.Because it covers a lot of topics and requires a variety of skills.

What are the prerequisites for the AZ-400 exam?

  1. These professionals must be proficient with Agile practices in software development.
  2. Familiar with Azure management and azure development, and must be an expert in any of these areas. Ability to design and implement DevOps best practices using Azure technology to incorporate configuration management, versioning, compliance, build, release, testing, and infrastructure as code.
  3. DevOps professionals are able to combine processes, people, and technology to continuously deliver services and products that meet business objectives and user needs.

How do you participate in the az-400 test?

1.Born to Learn:

This is one of Microsoft’s official learning communities where you can find wonderful blog posts about Microsoft certifications and Microsoft AZ-400 Practice Test. When the AZ-400 beta exam is open for registration, you can get the test code you need from it.

2.Join Microsoft’s SME Profile Database:

Members of the group are eligible to receive e-mail messages that contain the AZ-400 beta test code. (Limited exam code in resources)You can access this program through Microsoft AZ-400 Pdf dumps Collaborate, and Microsoft Collaborate is an ideal resource for Microsoft partners.

How to prepare for the AZ-400 exam?

1.Visit Official Microsoft Page Only links to the AZ-400 exam can be accessed from this page.
2.Books Searching for genuine AZ-400 exam books that can help you a lot.
3.Azure White PapersYou can access a variety of white papers, e-books, and analytics reports from the Microsoft Azure page that can help you understand the most updates about azure development operations and related technologies.
4.Microsoft Documentation on Azure DevOps There will be comprehensive dashboards, public projects, and analytics solutions that can be accessed from this document.
5.TrainingFor most of the Azure certification exams, Microsoft provides on-demand instructor-led training in joint with its exam partners.
6. Forums & Study Groups You can find a learning group or forum on the az-400 page on the Microsoft page, which will help you learn.

Study material for exam AZ-400

Which books do you recommend?

1.Introducing Microsoft Team Foundation Server 2017
2.DevOps: 2 Manuscripts – DevOps Handbook and DevOps Adoption
3.The DevOps Handbook: How to Create World-Class Agility, Reliability, and Security in Technology Organizations
4.The Kubernetes Book: March 2019
5. DevOps: A Software Architect’s Perspective (SEI Series in Software Engineering)
6.Microservices, IoT and Azure: Leveraging DevOps and Microservice Architecture to deliver SaaS Solutions
7.Microservices, IoT and Azure: Leveraging DevOps and Microservice Architecture to deliver SaaS Solutions
8.NuGet 2 Essentials

The following can be very useful for this exam:

Design a DevOps Strategy

  • Recommend a migration and consolidation strategy for DevOps tools
  • Design and implement an Agile work management approach
  • Design a quality strategy
  • Design a secure development process
  • Design a tool integration strategy

Implement DevOps Development Processes

  • Design a version control strategy
  • Implement and integrate source control
  • Implement and manage build infrastructure
  • Implement code flow
  • Implement a mobile DevOps strategy
  • Managing application configuration and secrets

Implement Continuous Integration

  • Manage code quality and security policies
  • Implement a container build strategy
  • Implement a build strategy

Implement Continuous Delivery

  • Design a release strategy
  • Set up a release management workflow
  • Implement an appropriate deployment pattern

Implement Dependency Management

  • Design a dependency management strategy
  • Manage security and compliance

Implement Application Infrastructure

  • Design an infrastructure and configuration management strategy
  • Implement Infrastructure as Code
  • Manage Azure Kubernetes Service infrastructure
  • Implement infrastructure compliance and security

Implement infrastructure compliance and security

  • Recommend and design system feedback mechanisms
  • Implement process for routing system feedback to development teams
  • Optimize feedback mechanisms

Best Microsoft MCSA 70-410 Cert Exam Up To Date 2019 for Free

This exam is part of a series of three exams that test the skills and knowledge required to implement the core Windows Server 2012 infrastructure in an existing enterprise environment. 70-410 exam dumps.This exam verifies the ability of candidates to implement and configure Windows Server 2012 core services such as active directory and network services.You must pass to achieve the MCSA: Windows Server 2012 certification.

To help you pass 70-410 exam for the first time, be sure to make the most of these revision resources, practice tests, and tips.

How do I study for MCSA 70-410
exam 2019?

1. Use the Books Revision guides can help you build revisions in the way that best suits your learning style. 70-410 study guide.They focus on your learning and cover the content you will test on the exam.Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
2.Using Microsoft Virtual Academy Microsoft’s Virtual Academy is a learning resource directly from Microsoft that provides free online training and assistance to those interested in Microsoft technology. It contains a lot of videos, presentations, and other information, and it involves a lot of microsoft technology.
3.Join the Microsoft Forum You can bounce ideas off others, gain insight from those who’ve passed the exam and share knowledge and resources to help studying.The technet forum is very useful for guiding and providing information, whether you are taking an exam or just looking for help with a specific microsoft query. There are also a wide range of topics, which means that it is very likely that someone has already answered your question.
4.Take a 70-410 Practice test Practice testing is great, letting you get used to the form of exams, and prepare the types of questions and topics you will face, the real things you will face. This is also a good way to measure your level of learning and identify knowledge gaps.
5.Attend the MCSA 70-740 course You sit in the classroom without distraction, with other people who are focused on passing the same exams.You will also benefit from the teacher’s insight and monitoring of practical experience.
6.Download a trial version of Windows Server A good way to prepare for the exam is to learn the software yourself. Tailored to this experience around the 70-410 exam, you will be able to actually learn and modify, gain experience with certification and real use of the software.
7.Join the Microsoft Research Group The study Group is designed to help you share your learning skills and experience with others about the exam.
It’s also a great way to stay motivated.
8.Join the Windows Server Practice Lab If you’re inexperienced in using the software, you can gain hands-on experience without causing any problems you haven’t experienced yet.Go to the TechNet Virtual Lab, which contains 31 labs aligned with Windows Server 2012. There is a virtual lab dedicated to configuring and managing servers. The most important thing is that these resources are free.
9.Download the Microsoft Learning app There are many apps that can help you learn the exam.

How hard is the 70-410 exam?

In the Microsoft 70-740 exam, you can expect about 47 queries.The required pass score is about 700, which means it’s not an easy nut to crack. You only have 2 hours of exam time.

The success of the Microsoft 70-410 exam can be achieved with two cutting-edge technologies, including 70-410 PDF and hands-on exam testing for learning materials.Geekcert’s PDF documents are easy to carry in laptops or hard copies, so you can easily prepare no matter where you are.

How many Microsoft exams can you take?

Candidates may not attend specific examinations more than 5 times a year (1 2 months). This 12-month period begins on the day the fifth unsuccessful exam was re-tested.

What is an exam dump?

A braindump is a collection of actual exam questions and answers, provided by recent exam takers. These questions can be copied by the tester digitally or manually and then passed to a website that is sold to others.

MCSA and MCSE?

The main difference between MCSA and MCSE is that MCSA 70-410 dumps is an association or entry level certification, and MCSE is an expert certification.

What can I get from MCSA?

Employee’s most popular job with Microsoft Certified System Administrator (MCSA) certified median salary scale

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Change the concept of Microsoft Mcsa-windows Server 2012 Exam Preparation-70-410 Training Guide

Using a large number of books and notes, geekcert does not follow the old concept of Microsoft MCSA-Windows Server 2012 exam preparation, but introduces a short, important, and most relevant content that is very helpful in passing any certification to Microsoft MCSA-Windows Server 2012. examination.

For example, our March 2019 70-410 Updated Learning Guide covers a specific number of questions and answers in the entire syllabus.

My experience. Passed 70-410 first try!

I’ve seen so many people struggling with the 70-410 exam (70-410 exam how many questions)and I want to share my experience in the hope that it will help others prepare and get through.

I’ve been following these forums for a while, and I’ve been preparing for exams, and the advice and tips I’ve received have helped me make a lot of preparations.

Comptia A +,network + and Security + certification and Windows XP MCP certification.

I can’t tell you how important these are to my study. If you’re just starting to get certified, only starting with 70-410 dumps pdf and getting into trouble I strongly recommend using a +,network +security + before trying 70-410.

I have learned a lot about basic knowledge and basic concepts from these certifications, which are not covered in any of my research materials used in 70-410 exam dumps.

Study materials:

  1. Pluralsight Training Videos for Server 2012 R2 with Jason Helmick and Greg Shields
  2. Infinite Skills Training Videos for Server 2012 R2 with John Savill
  3. Microsoft Exam Ref for Server 2012 R2 by Craig Zacker
  4. 70-410 Practice Tests

Definitely study at least a little bit of the 711 content before sitting for the exam.

I took advice from others and looked at a little bit from 70-411, but in retrospect, I would have done more because on 710, there seemed to be more questions about 710 than I initially expected.

2019 Cisco 200-105 Dumps | Free 200-105 PDF …

200-105 ICND2

  • Exam Number: 200-105 ICND2
  • Associated Certifications:CCNA Routing and Switching
  • Duration:English, Japanese
  • Available Languages:Pearson VUE
  • Exam Policies:Review type of exam questions

Examination purpose

The exam tests candidates’ knowledge and skills related to LAN switching technology, IPv4 and IPv6 routing technologies, WAN technologies, infrastructure services and infrastructure maintenance.

Learning Resources

  1. Self-Study E-Learning
  2. Lecturer leads training
  3. Cisco Press

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It is recommended that you have the following skills and knowledge before attending this course:

  • Understand the basics of the network
  • Implementation of LAN
  • Enable Internet connectivity
  • Manage network devices
  • Securing Network Devices Implementing a basic IPv6 connection

Self-Study E-Learning

Free Cisco ICND 200-105 Latest & Updated Exam Questions for candidates to study and pass exams fast.Cisco 200-105 Free-Download question discussion:

CCNA Routing and Switching ICND2 200-105 Official Cert Guide, Academic

Lecturer leads training

Best-selling writers and expert lecturers share preparation tips and exam tips to help you identify weaknesses and improve your conceptual knowledge and practical skills.

The Geekcert 200-105 exam PDF and VCE Simulator is the latest certification exam preparation material.Geekcert’s latest 200-105 dumps will help 200-105 candidates pass the 200-105 exam in a short period of time and easily get Cisco certification. Choosing Geekcert as a 200-105 exam preparation assistance will be of great help in passing the Cisco 200-105 exam. Save time, energy and money.

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Where can I get free Cisco 200-105 dumps?

  1. 200-105 Training Courses(There are several training courses to guide you, such as Interconnect Cisco network devices, part 2nd, or CCNA Routing and switching.)
  2. Interconnect Cisco Network equipment Part 2nd Test(Find some online 200-105 tests, Geekcert is great.which will increase your understanding of the CCNA Routing and Exchange exams.)
  3. Press Books (If you are a reader who likes to read, find some 200-105 news books that are suitable for interconnection Cisco Network devices 2nd part of the exam, such as the CCNA Routing and switching self-package training suite.)
  4. Ask Around (You can find it by asking someone with 200-105 exam experience. Get their advice before taking the Connected Cisco Networking Device Part 2 exam.ccna 200-105 pdf download. At the same time, you can join some online forums to provide you with a lot of ideas and suggestions for preparing CCNA routing and exchange exams.)

Pass your 200-105 exam and get Certified | Get 200-105 practice question answers 2019

Not only do we offer Cisco 200-105 practice tests, but we also provide you with proven ICND2 200-105 PDF questions and 200-105 PDF questions, and a clear understanding of how to try to interconnect Cisco Network Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0) The exam is only the first attempt. Our Cisco Certified Professionals provide them with reliable CCNA routing and exchange 200-105 questions and answers.

Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?

A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Correct Answer: B

What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called ?

A. TRAP
B. INFORM
C. GET
D. SET
Correct Answer: AB

Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?

A. show reload
B. show boot
C. show running-config
D. show version
Correct Answer: D

While troubleshooting a GRE tunnel interface issue, show interface command output displays tunnel status up, but line
protocol is down. Which reason for this problem is the most likely?

A. The interface has been administratively shut down.
B. The route to the tunnel destination address is through the tunnel itself
C. The tunnel was just reset.
D. The next hop server is misconfigured
Correct Answer: B

Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type that is supported by Cisco routers?

A. IETF
B. ANSI Annex D
C. Q9333-A Annex A
D. HDLC
Correct Answer: A

What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database?

A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Correct Answer: AC