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New Cisco Specialist 700-172 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which three options are ways that customers benefit from the Cisco Technology Developer Program? (Choose three.)
A. Complete access to Cisco technologies and support resources
B. Faster, more successful deployments
C. Display the Cisco Compatible logo in association with their product offering
D. Exponentially expands the number and quality of rich, new business solutions
E. Opportunity to participate in Cisco research and development to develop next-generation Cisco Collaboration solutions
Correct Answer: C,D,E

QUESTION 2
In which deployment model does the service provider host dedicated equipment within its network operations center for a predictable monthly cost?
A. Managed customer-premises
B. Equipment services
C. Fully hosted unified communications
D. Advanced services mode
E. Hybrid or blended model
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which collaborative quoting platform gives an account manager the autonomy to make deals and quote decisions from within a single workspace?
A. Cisco Partner Central
B. Cisco Commerce Workspace
C. Cisco Unified Communications Business Advisor
D. Cisco Smart Business Roadmap
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which three options are important selling points for Cisco against Microsoft? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco better enables for mobility and deskless workers.
B. Cisco is well respected and is the only serious choice in collaboration.
C. Cisco Unified Presence can be integrated with Microsoft Office Communicator and Microsoft Lync.
D. Cisco has the maturity both in technology development and empirical deployment to scale to the requirements of large enterprises.
E. Cisco routers represent a competitive edge in remote offices.
F. Cisco provides unparalleled value to the managed service provider.
Correct Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION 5
Which option is an application in the Cisco IOS Software that provides call processing for as few as 15 and as many as 450 Cisco Unified IP Phones?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
B. Cisco Unified Computing System
C. Cisco Integrated Media Engine
D. Cisco Emergency Responder
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which option aligns licensing to these three key role-based licenses: Power User, Information Work, and Officer Worker?
A. Right-to-Use Licenses
B. Cisco Unity Connection 9. 0 Licensing
C. Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing
D. Device License Units
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which three statements about Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? 700-172 dumps (Choose three.)
A. It supports the full range of collaboration services only on Cisco devices
B. It supports the full range of collaboration services on Cisco and third-party devices.
C. It is used only to support voice routing and calling
D. It replaces the analog technology of PBX with a centralized IP-based communications infrastructure.
E. It is at the center of the Cisco collaboration architecture.
F. It combines the analog technology of PBX with a centralized IP-based communications infrastructure.
Correct Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 8
You are discussing Cisco Collaboration Architecture with the IT manager of an organization
Which three statements are effective responses that relate to the IT manager’s concerns’? (Choose three.)
A. Improved collaboration tools improve the end-user experience and will make the IT manager more popular.
B. Initial costs may be higher, but comparing the Total Cost of Ownership over a five-year period will show that the Cisco product is less expensive.
C. A centralized Collaboration Architecture deployment will ease management and save money.
D. A fully-deployed Collaboration Architecture supports efficient training in a variety of ways
E. The Collaboration Architecture, by design, ensures the highest availability.
F. Collaboration tools improve upon ways in which corporations can enforce employee accountability.
Correct Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION 9
Which statement is an important selling point for Cisco against Avaya?
A. Cisco is well respected and is the proven leader in collaboration.
B. Cisco supports deskless workers
C. Cisco can offer a complete end-to-end solution
D. Cisco has acquired more than 100 innovative companies.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which three roles belong to an informal buying center that the account manager must be aware of? (Choose three)
A. Gatekeeper
B. Partner
C. Initiator
D. Seller
E. Buyer
F. Dealer
Correct Answer: A,C,E

QUESTION 11
Which statement about Cisco WebEx Meeting Center is true?
A. It is powered by Jabber XMPP and can be used for one-on-one or group chat and file transfers
B. It is an award-winning flagship product that simulates a traditional live meeting in an online environment
C. It displays life-size, remarkably clear video images, which provide a “face-to-face” meeting with remote customers, suppliers, and partners.
D. It is fully scalable, is delivered entirely over the public Internet, and is optimized for security, performance, and reliability.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Cisco Collaboration is expensive. This is a very common FUD statement. Which two are proven ways of handling this statement? (Choose two)
A. Cisco is trusted for delivering quality and reliable world class solutions, support, and services, hence its collaboration solution is expensive
B. Cisco is a proven vendor and its collaboration portfolio is very competitively priced when compared to similar vendors in the market
C. Cisco collaboration might demand higher CAPEX but it is worthwhile since OPEX will be reduced significantly during the life cycle
D. Cisco’s end-to-end solution saves money through centralized management and enhanced scalability and flexibility
E. Cisco has the most comprehensive collaboration portfolio and flexible delivery model offerings in the market at a the most affordable price
Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 13
Which two options are advantages of a Collaboration Architecture that are important from the Human Resource Managers viewpoint? (Choose two.)
A. 24-hour network support
B. Advanced collaboration tools improve upon ways in which corporations can enforce employee accountability.
C. The corporation gains increased redundancy in the communications network
D. Advanced collaboration applications provide multiple communication channels through which employees can communicate with one another
E. Emergency response is improved upon, which results in a safer work environment
Correct Answer: B,E

QUESTION 14
Which three statements describe Cisco Enterprise License Manager? (Choose three.)
A. It is centralized and free, and it manages licenses across multiple clusters through license management, reporting, and compliance systems.
B. It is an enterprise-wide management tool for all Cisco Collaboration licenses
C. It is available in Professional. Standard, and Entry Editions
D. It includes soft clients, applications server software, and licensing on a per-user basis
E. It enables customers to see whether they require additional licenses and how the purchased licenses are utilized.
Correct Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION 15
Who uses Cisco Show and Share and Cisco WebEx Social for gaining and sharing information?
A. Customer
B. Knowledge worker
C. Mobile worker and teleworker
D. Contact center agent
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which company stakeholder may ask questions relating to improving resource efficiency while maintaining regulatory compliance during evaluation of a new architecture or strategy?
A. Chief Financial Officer
B. Chief Information Officer
C. Chief Executive Officer
D. Vice President
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which two of the following are concerns that an operations manager may have in making a decision on Cisco Collaboration? (Choose two.)
A. Fast adoption of organizational changes
B. How to engage with external suppliers quickly
C. Reliability of the company infrastructure
D. Go-to-market time of new products or services
E. Changing customer demands
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 18
Which statement correctly describes the features of the product?
A. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center Quick response tools, high-quality video, support locations where Internet access is regulated
B. Cisco WebEx Training Center: Visual attention indicator, integrated testing engine, breakout sessions
C. Cisco WebEx Support Center: High-quality video, multisession interface, integrated testing engine
D. Cisco Unified Meeting Place: Fully scalable, visual attention indicator, optimized for BYOD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two customer statements present business ROI? 700-172 dumps (Choose two)
A. Cisco Collaboration helps us to increase the productivity of our sales force and to gain new revenue streams through new customers
B. Cisco Telepresence can integrate with our existing video infrastructure
C. With Cisco Collaboration, we will engage quicker with third-party suppliers and will shorten goto-market time for innovative products globally
D. With Cisco Collaboration, we can deploy Extension Mobility, which will allow employees to “touchdown” at any workspace
E. A Cisco Collaboration Architecture will improve our company’s morale
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 20
Mobile workers and teleworkers do not have direct access to coworkers, but they must engage with them regularly.
Which three collaboration tools benefit these workers’? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Jabber
B. Cisco Video Conferencing
C. Cisco Emergency Responder
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
E. Cisco Unified Communications
Correct Answer: A,B,E

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200-125 dumps

High Quality Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined for 192.168.0.0/20 to a specific interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.240.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
D. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?
A. traceroute
B. telnet
C. ping
D. show ipv6
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which component of a routing table entry represents the subnet mask?
A. routing protocol code
B. prefix
C. metric
D. network mask
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What is the correct command for floating static ipv6 route?
A. ipv6 route 2001:DB8::/32 serial 2/0 201
B. ipv6 route 2001:DB8::/32 serial 2/0 1
C. N/A
D. N/A
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Scenario
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links. 200-125 dumps
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R5 in the Branch2 office. What is causing the problem?
A. There is an area ID mismatch.
B. There is a PPP authentication issue; a password mismatch.
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
D. There is a missing network command in the OSPF process on R5.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What routing protocol use first-hand information?
A. link-state
B. distance-vector
C. path-vector
D. other
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection.
B. The connection is established before data is transmitted.
C. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.
D. It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP.
E. It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted.
F. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. 200-125 dumps Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 9
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)
A. autonomous system number
B. version number
C. router ID
D. subnet mask
E. IP address
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table?
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the interfaces of R2 as indicated by the command output shown?
A. One interface has a problem.
B. Two interfaces have problems.
C. The interfaces are functioning correctly.
D. The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
On which options are standard access lists based?
A. destination address and wildcard mask
B. destination address and subnet mask
C. source address and subnet mask
D. source address and wildcard mask
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
–Router R1 connects the main office to internet, and routers R2 and R3 are internal routers –NAT is enabled on Router R1 –The routing protocol that is enabled between Rl, R2 and R3 is RIPv2 –R1 sends default route into RIPv2 for internal routers to forward internet traffic to R1 –Serverl and Server 2 are placed in VLAN 100 and 200 respectively, and are still running on stick Configuration with router R2. 200-125 dumps You have console access on Rl, R2, R3 and L2SW1 devices. Use only show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
200-125 dumps
Users in the main office complain that they are unable to reach internet sites. You observe that internet traffic that is destined towards ISP router is not forwarded correctly on Router R1.
What could be an issue?
Ping to Internet server shows the following results from R1:
Rl#ping 209.165.200.225
Type escape sequence to abort.
Sending 5,100-byte ICMP Echos to 209.165.200.225, timeout is 2 seconds:
…..
Success rate is 0 percent (0/5)
A. The next hop router address for the default route is incorrectly configured.
B. Default route pointing to ISP router is not configured on Router R1.
C. Default route pointing to ISP router is configured with AD of 225.
D. Router R1 configured as DHCP client is not receiving default route via DHCP from ISP router.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Users have been complaining that their Frame Relay connection to the corporate site is very slow. The network administrator suspects that the link is overloaded.
200-125 dumps
Based on the partial output of the Router# show frame relay pvc command shown in the graphic, which output value indicates to the local router that traffic sent to the corporate site is experiencing congestion?
A. DLCI = 100
B. last time PVC status changed 00:25:40
C. in BECN packets 192
D. in FECN packets 147
E. in DE packets 0
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Requirement to configure DHCP binding ( choose two)
A. DHCP pool
B. ip address
C. Hardware address
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0 network. The network administrator connected to router Coffee via the console port, issued the show ip route command, and was able to ping the server.
200-125 dumps
Based on the output of the show ip route command and the topology shown in the graphic, what is the cause of the failure?
A. The network has not fully converged.
B. IP routing is not enabled.
C. A static route is configured incorrectly.
D. The FastEthernet interface on Coffee is disabled.
E. The neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated.
F. The routing table on Coffee has not updated.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why? 200-125 dumps
A. Switch A, because it has the lowest MAC address
B. Switch A, because it is the most centrally located switch
C. Switch B, because it has the highest MAC address
D. Switch C, because it is the most centrally located switch
E. Switch C, because it has the lowest priority
F. Switch D, because it has the highest priority
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20
Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?
A. enable cdp
B. cdp enable
C. cdp run
D. run cdp
Correct Answer: C

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Best Microsoft MCSD 70-488 dumps exam files Qs & As (1-10)

QUESTION 1
You need to ensure that the CourierMobile app determines whether the franchisee owns the account.
What should you do?
A. Use OAuth and App only security. Request the Read right from the http://sharepoint/content/sitecollection/web/list scope URI.
B. Use OAuth and App+User security. Request the Read right from the http://sharepoint/content/sitecollection scope URI.
C. Use SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges to connect to SharePoint and read from the Accounts list in the site collection.
D. Use the SharePoint user credentials of the bicycle messenger to connect to SharePoint and read from the Accounts list in the site collection.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A franchisee deletes several sites from the franchise’s site collection. The franchisee site collection administrator must recover the sites.
You need to instruct the franchisee site collection administrator on how to access the page to recover the sites.
What should the site collection administrator do to get to the appropriate page?
A. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the second stage Recycle Bin settings to 100 percent.
B. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the first stage Recycle Bin settings to 0 days.
C. Select the Recycle Bin on the Site Settings page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
D. Select the Recycle Bin in the Quick Launch page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that the CloudManager app can write route progress check-ins to the courier’s microfeed.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Ensure that SP.RequestExecutor.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
B. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Manage permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
C. Ensure that the MySite host is provisioned for each franchisee.
D. Ensure that all cookies are made available between the My Site and the CloudManager app domain.
E. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Write permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
F. Ensure that SP.UserProfiles.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
Correct Answer: ABDE

Explanation:
* From scenario:
/ Business Requirements
The FranchiseMonitor app must allow a Franchise employee to upload Appointments.csv to a SharePoint document library in each Franchisee site collection, and send Appointments.csv to the CloudManager app.
/ The FranchiseMonitor app must display the courier’s location on the bicycle courier’s microfeed on the SharePoint farm if the courier has remained stationary for more than three minutes. 70-488 dumps
/ The CloudManager app must implement business logic that parses Appointments.csv and geo- location data and sends Appointments or Appointment cancellations to the CourierMobile app.

QUESTION 4
You need to implement the custom claims provider for the SharePoint farm.
Which code segments should you implement? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
70-488 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
F. Option F
Correct Answer: BDF

Explanation:
* From scenario:
MyClaimsProvider.es
70-488 dumps
QUESTION 5
You need to set the appropriate permissions for the franchise employees’ customer list and customer subsite access.
What should you do?
A. Add franchise employees to the Members group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the franchisee subsite level. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
B. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customers list. Add franchise employees to the custom role at the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the subsite level. Add franchise owners to the Owners group at the subsite level.
C. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customer list. Add franchise employees to the custom role. Allow full inheritance of the role definition and permissions at the site level.
D. Add franchise employees to the Visitors group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the subsite level with Full Control permissions. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You need to create rules in the CourierMobile app based on the ItemType that arrives.
For which ItemTypes should you test? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Tent
B. IPM.Note
C. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Request
D. IPM.Appointment
E. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Cancelled
F. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Pos
G. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Neg
Correct Answer: DE

Explanation:
From scenario:
* The CourierMobile app receives Microsoft Outlook appointments (D) and Outlook appointment cancellations (E) from the CloudManager app. The appointments include the address of the location for pick-up or drop-off.

QUESTION 7
You need to meet the requirements for data storage for the CourierMobile app and the CloudMananger app.
Which technologies should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure SQL Database
B. SharePoint content database
C. Secure Store
D. SQL Server Express LocalDB
E. SharePoint list
Correct Answer: AD

Explanation:
A: SQL Azure in the cloud.
lightweight version of Express that has the same programmability features, but
D: LocalDB is a
it runs in user mode and has a fast, zero-configuration installation and a short list of prerequisites.
From scenario:
* CourierMobile App
The CourierMobile app must be able to capture more than 30 million data points of location data daily as they occur and upload the location data to the cloud when connected to the Internet. 70-488 dumps
* Cloudmanager App
/ The CloudManager app must elastically scale to capture courier location data as the number of bicycle couriers increases or decreases.
/ The CloudManager app must process bicycle courier location data from a data store capable of storing more than 30 million items.

QUESTION 8
You need to create a custom sign-in page to allow the users of the FranchiseMonitor app to authenticate against SharePoint and Margie’s Travel API.
What should you do?
A. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Sandbox solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named FedAuth. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
B. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Farm solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named FedAuth. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
C. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Farm solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named ASPXAUTH. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
D. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Sandbox solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named ASPXAUTH. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You receive an error when you deploy the app.
You need to resolve the error.
What should you do?
A. Create a deployment package and upload the app to the app catalog in SharePoint.
B. Enable side-loading of apps in the app manifest.
C. Deploy the app to https://contoso-my.sharepoint.com.
D. Enable side-loading of apps in the Visual Studio project properties.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
After deploying a solution, a code-based hotfix becomes available.
You need to deploy the hotfix.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Use assembly binding redirection in the web application configuration file.
B. Increment the assembly file version of the assembly.
C. Increment the product version of the assembly.
D. Increment the assembly version of the assembly.
E. Use assembly binding redirection in the assembly policy file.
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:
A:Assembly versions are everywhere in SharePoint web.config files, web part definitions, workflow definitions, event receiver bindings the list goes on. In each case, the version number is absolutely required so that SharePoint can load the code to run at that time. If you update an assembly’s version, you have two choices to ensure your code can still be loaded:
/ Find and update every reference to the previous assembly version.
/ Use a binding redirect in the relevant.config file (e.g. web.config) to point to the new version of the assembly.
C: Assembly Version : This is the version number used by framework during build and at runtime to locate, link and load the assemblies. When you add reference to any assembly in your project, it is this version number which gets embedded. At runtime, CLR looks for assembly with this version number to load. But remember this version is used along with name, public key token and culture information only if the assemblies are strong-named signed. If assemblies are not strong-named signed, only file names are used for loading.
Incorrect:
not B: Assembly File Version : This is the version number given to file as in file system. It is displayed by Windows Explorer. Its never used by .NET framework or runtime for referencing.
From scenario:
* solution artifacts must adhere to industry best practices.
* Code based hot fixes must be deployed directly to the Global Assembly Cache on all SharePoint servers.
* Only one version of an assembly must be available at runtime.

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640-911 dumps
QUESTION 1
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Which network device is used to identify and protect against unauthorized traffic and control access to legitimate business-critical data?
A. Stateful firewall
B. Stateless firewall
C. Router
D. Gateway
E. Switch
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. Datagram
B. Routing
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Transport
F. Transmission
G. Session
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
You are designing a network that provides FCoE, FabricPath, OTV, and Layer 3 functionalities. Which device can perform these functionalities?
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
C. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches
D. Cisco ASR 1001 Router
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which three IP addresses are examples of an RFC 1918 address? 640-911 dumps (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.3.1/24
B. 209.165.201.5/27
C. 209.165.200.225/27
D. 10.30.20.1/28
E. 192.168.200.50/24
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 6
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer? (Choose two.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
What is the subnet mask for the network 172.16.0.0/21?
A. 255.255.0.0
B. 255.255.255.240
C. 255.255.248.0
D. 255.255.255.248
E. 255.255.248.240
F. 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two options describe services that are provided by TCP? (Choose two.)
A. session multiplexing
B. EtherTypes identify destination services
C. connection-oriented
D. best-effort packet delivery
E. binary translation
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
In an IPv6 address, how many bits are used for the interface identifier?
A. 48
B. 16
C. 64
D. 128
E. 10
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which two data center technologies are part of the IEEE 802.3 standard for Ethernet-based LANs? (Choose two.)
A. 40 Gb/s
B. 10 Gb/s
C. WLAN
D. Smart Grid
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
Ethernet 1/1 is assigned IP address 10.1.1.1 with subnet mask 255.255.255.0. 640-911 dumps Which configuration is used to configure EIGRP on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?
A. feature eigrp!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0no shutdown!router eigrp 1network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
B. feature eigrp!router eigrp 1autonomous-system 1!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24ip router eigrp 1no shutdown
C. router eigrp 1autonomous-system 1!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24ip router eigrp 1no shutdown
D. feature eigrp!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24no shutdown!router eigrp 1network 10.1.1.00.0.0.255
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18?
A. show running-config switchport e1/18
B. show running-config e1/18 switchport
C. show interface e1/18
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
E. show interface e1/18 native
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
What is the result when two data transmissions are sent at the same time?
A. A collision occurs and both devices stop transmission and back off.
B. A collision occurs and one device retransmits.
C. All traffic continues to transmit.
D. A collision occurs and both devices resend transmissions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
What two statements about functions within the OSI layer model are true? (Choose two.)
A. data at Layer 3 is referred to as a Frame
B. routing function happen at Layer 3
C. network layer is responsible for assigning a MAC address to NIC
D. ARP is a Layer 2 protocol
E. encryption of data happens at the Transport Layer
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 15
Which two options describe what can happen when devices are in the same broadcast domain? (Choose two.)
A. They are on the same VLAN and the same switch.
B. They are on different VLANs and the same switch.
C. They are on different VLANs and different switches.
D. They are on the same VLAN and different switches.
Correct Answer: AD

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220-802 dumps
QUESTION 1
A user is looking for the Application Data directory in their profile but cannot see it. Which of the following Control Panel options would correct this?
A. System
B. Display
C. User Accounts
D. Folder Options
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which Windows 7 command can stop a single process from the command-line?
A. Taskkill
B. Shutdown
C. Tasklist
D. DEL
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the correct term for the local platform on which client virtual machines run?
A. Administrative shares
B. Guest OS
C. Cloud
D. Hypervisor
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A technician wants to test connectivity with a remote device in the other room that appears to be having intermittent connectivity issues. 220-802 dumps
Which of the following command line tools will allow them to check connectivity over an extended period of time without having to retype commands?
A. NSLOOKUP
B. PING
C. NETSTAT
D. TRACERT
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is typically the MOST difficult security threat to remove?
A. Spyware
B. Virus
C. Trojan
D. Rootkit
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A technician is having connectivity issues with a client\’s machine. The client\’s wall jack passed testing and the technician also uses a loopback to test the NIC on the PC and it also passed testing. Which of the following tools would a technician use to test between the wall jack and the PC?
A. Toner probe
B. Multimeter
C. Wireless locator
D. Cable tester
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A technician needs to sanitize a hard drive for reuse. Which of the following would be the EASIEST for the technician to perform?
A. Overwrite
B. Low level format
C. Destroy hard drive
D. Degaussing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A company recently had a security breach and is now required to increase the security on their workstations. A technician has been tasked to harden all the workstations on the network. Which of the following should the technician do?
A. Enable Windows automatic updates
B. Enable screensaver required passwords
C. Enable MAC filtering
D. Enable wireless encryption
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following settings MUST be configured in order to turn on a VoIP phone?
A. PoE
B. Flow control
C. VPN
D. Duplex speed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A service technician is installing a second hard drive on a desktop PC running Windows 7. The second hard drive is the same make and model of the first hard drive. 220-802 dumps The technician would like to provide data redundancy. Which of the following should the technician use to accomplish this?
A. Disk Management
B. Device Manager
C. System Configuration
D. Data Sources
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A user receives an email seemingly from the director of the company\’s IT department. The user however notices that the content of the email is asking for information specifically forbidden to be shared with anyone. This type of interaction is known as which of the following?
A. Phishing
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Malware
D. Spyware
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
An administrator is asked to review a file on a local drive. The file contains what appear to be multiple conversations from emails, chat sessions, and various word processing files that were accessed during the past several days. Ann, the user, advises the administrator this was not a file she had created. The file is MOST likely created by which of the following?
A. Malware
B. Phishing
C. Social engineering
D. Keylogger
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A user recently installed an application. Upon the next reboot, the system is displaying various errors relating to the system files and certain actions e.g. right-clicking no longer works. The user does not have time to reimage the computer, nor do they wish to remove and reinstall the application. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Open up the command prompt and type SFC /SCANNOW
B. Open Task Manager and stop all running SERVICES processes
C. Open up MSCONFIG and remove the application from the start-up tab
D. Open a command prompt and type REGSVR32 SYSMAIN.DLL U
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following should a technician implement to prevent external contractors from physically plugging devices into the company\’s network jacks unless such jacks are designated for guest use?
A. Disable DHCP and assign a static IP address to each network device physically connected to the network.
B. Enable MAC address filtering across all network jacks and record the MAC address of guest devices.
C. Disable all switch ports when they are not utilized and enable them on an as needed basis.
D. Place guest network jacks in public areas and all other jacks in secure areas as needed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A PC is running slower than usual. Which of the following tools would BEST diagnose the possible bottleneck?
A. CHKDSK
B. Device Manager
C. Task Scheduler
D. Task Manager
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
From which of the following tools can a technician locate the PID of an application?
A. Local Security Policy
B. MSCONFIG
C. Computer Management
D. Task Manager
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
A user states when they press certain letters on their laptop\’s keyboard, a number is displayed on the screen. 220-802 dumps Which of the following can the technician perform to resolve this issue?
A. Change the character mapping
B. Turn off number lock
C. Replace the keyboard
D. Update the keyboard drivers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which of the following would be the BEST way to combat social engineering?
A. User education
B. Deny social networks through the firewall
C. Badges
D. Strong password usage
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
When cutting back the protective coating on CAT5 wiring, which of the following is the recommended tool?
A. Punchdown tool
B. Basic crimper
C. Wire strippers
D. Degausser
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
A technician is tasked with improving the security of a SOHO network. The office is comprised of a single wireless router located under the front desk where the office manager sits. All desktop computers are wired into the router which is configured with strong device credentials. Additionally, wireless is disabled on the router. Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT to improve the security of the SOHO network?
A. Disable the router\’s remote management feature.
B. Enable WPA2 wireless encryption.
C. Change the router\’s default admin name and password.
D. Place the router in a locked room.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a main office and a branch office. An Active Directory site exists for each office.
The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Both servers have the DHCP Server server role installed. Server1 is located in the main office site.
Server2 is located in the branch office site. Server1 provides IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the main office site.
Server2 provides IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the branch office site. You need to ensure that if either Server1 or Server2 are offline, the client computers can still obtain IPv4 addresses.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
The storage location of the DHCP databases must not be a single point of failure. Server1 must provide IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the branch office site only if Server2 is offline.
Server2 must provide IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the main office site only if Server1 is offline.
Which configuration should you use?
A. load sharing mode failover partners
B. a failover cluster
C. hot standby mode failover partners
D. a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Your network contains one Active Directory domain. The domain contains two Hyper-V hosts named Host1 and Host2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Host1 contains a virtual machine named VM1.
You plan to move VM1 to Host2. 70-412 dumps
You need to generate a report that lists any configuration issues on Host2 that will prevent VM1 from being moved successfully.
Which cmdlet should you use?
A. Move-VM
B. Test-VHD
C. Debug-VM
D. Compare-VM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You have a subscription to Windows Azure.
You need to register the Microsoft Azure Backup Agent on Server1.
What should you do first?
A. Install the Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM) agent.
B. Create a backup vault.
C. Create Site Recovery vault.
D. Configure a passphrase for the Azure Backup Agent.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which permission should you assign on a CA to a group of users that you want to be able to respond to certificate requests but you do not want to provide them with the ability to change CA security settings?
A. Read
B. Issue And Manage Certificates
C. Manage CA
D. Request Certificates
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You have an enterprise certification authority (CA) named CA1. You have a certificate template named UserAutoEnroll that is based on the User certificate template. Domain users are configured to autoenroll for UserAutoEnroll. A user named User1 has an email address defined in Active Directory. A user named User2 does not have an email address defined in Active Directory. You discover that User1 was issued a certificate based on UserAutoEnroll template automatically. A request by user2 for a certificate based on the UserAutoEnroll template fails. You need to ensure that all users can autoenroll for certificated based on the UserAutoEnroll template. Which setting should you configure from the properties on the UserAutoEnroll certificate template?
A. Issuance Requirements
B. Request Handling
C. Cryptography
D. Subject Name
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The main office is located in Detroit.
The branch office is located in Seattle.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. Client computers run either Windows 7 Enterprise or Windows 8 Enterprise.
The main office contains 1,000 client computers and 50 servers. The branch office contains 20 client computers.
All computer accounts for the branch office are located in an organizational unit (OU) named SeattleComputers. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to the SeattleComputers OU.
You need to configure BranchCache for the branch office.
Hot Area:
70-412 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-412 dumps
QUESTION 7
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and uses Windows Server Backup.
You need to identify whether the backups performed on Server1 support bare metal recovery. 70-412 dumps
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Get-OBMachineSetting
B. GetWBVSSBackupOption
C. Get-WBPolicy
D. Get-OBPolicy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Your organization is deploying a second Active Directory forest because a substantial number of users need to access a resource that requires significant changes to the Active Directory schema, which are not compatible with your current forest’s schema.
You want users in your forest to be able to access any resource in any domain in the new forest.
Which of the following should you do to accomplish this goal?
A. Configure a forest trust.
B. Configure an external trust.
C. Create a shortcut trust.
D. Configure name suffix routing.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You are employed as a network administrator at contoso.com.
Contoso.com has an active directory domain named contoso.com.
All servers on the contoso.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
Contoso.com has a server named server1,which is configured as a file server.
You have been instructed to enabled a feature that discovers and eradicates duplication within data without compromising its reliability or accuracy.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider having the Data Deduplication feature enabled.
B. You should consider having the Storage Spaces feature enabled.
C. You should consider having the Storage Management feature enabled.
D. You should consider having the folder redirection feature enabled.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You want to enable key archiving on a CA.
You need to issue a certificate from a specific template to the user who will recover private keys.
Which certificate template will you use as the basis for this certificate?
A. Kerberos authentication
B. Code signing
C. OCSP response signing
D. Key recovery agent
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1. A Microsoft Azure Backup of Server1 is created automatically every day.
You rename Server1 to Server2. 70-412 dumps you discover that backups are no longer created in Azure.
You need to backup the server to Azure.
What should you do?
A. From the Azure Management Portal, upload the Server2 certificae as a management certificate.
B. On Server2, run the Start-OBRegistration cmdlet.
C. On Server2, run the Add-WBBackupTarget cmdlet.
D. From the Azure Management Portal, modify the configuration on the backup vault.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You are employed as a senior network administrator at ABC.com.
ABC.com has an Active Directory domain named ABC.com.
All servers on the ABC.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
ABC.com has two servers,named SERVER1 and SERVER2 which are configured in a two- node failover cluster.
Server1 includes a folder,named ABCAppData,which is configured as a Distributed File System (DFS) name space folder target.
After configuring another two nodes in the failover cluster, you are instructed to make sure that access to ABC AppData is highly available.
You also have to make sure that application data is replicated to ABCAppData via DFS replication.
Which following actions should you take ?
A. You should consider configuring a scale-out File Server
B. You should consider configuring the replication settings for the cluster
C. You should consider configuring a file server for general use
D. You should consider configuring the Quorum settings
Correct Answer: A

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QUESTION 1
An engineer is tuning RRM parameters to improve client connectivity. Which channel band results in the best 802.11n client compatibility?
A. UNII-2
B. UNII-2e
C. UNII-3
D. UNII
E. UNII-1
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
An engineer is installing a wireless network in an industrial area with extreme temperatures and a significant amount of dust. Which enclosure should be used to protect the APs?
A. ACU
B. ADU
C. NEMA
D. WLSE
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What are two advantages of conducting an active survey versus a passive survey when verifying RF coverage? (Choose two.)
A. verifies packet loss
B. verifies roaming
C. verifies SNR
D. verifies signal level
E. verifies interferers
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 4
An engineer is deploying an outdoor Mesh network. Which four major factors should be considered? 300-360 dumps (Choose four.)
A. power
B. buildings
C. traffic lights
D. satellite dishes
E. line of sight
F. network connectivity
G. power lines
H. mounting
Correct Answer: AEHF

QUESTION 5
A customer has deployed an N+N redundant wireless infrastructure. In this deployment the access points have been salt and peppered between controllers.
What configuration would be necessary to cut down on the use of mobility tunnels for voice clients?
A. mobility anchor
B. KIS based CAC
C. media session snooping
D. re-anchor roamed voice clients
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which two steps are associated with the active portion of the audit when a post-installation audit is performed with an auditing tool such as Ekahau? (Choose two.)
A. Check for co-channel interference by standing near an access point on one channel and watching for other access points that are on the same channel.
B. Verify smooth roaming.
C. Check to see if the signal level on other access points that are heard on the same channel is at least 19dBm weaker than the access point that you are next to.
D. Check that all channels are supported by the APs regardless of client capabilities.
E. Verify that the network traffic of physical data rate and packet loss meets user requirements.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.
300-360 dumps
While testing the post-deployment WLAN network you discover that an AP has been placed in a difficult area. The AP cannot be moved easily because of various requirements. The client performance of various Apple and Microsoft operating system-based products does not meet expectations.
Which two options can help mitigate the performance issue? (Choose two.)
A. Add additional APs.
B. Increase the AP power level to maximum.
C. Rotate the AP 90 degrees to change antenna polarity.
D. Replace the AP with an AP and external antenna.
E. Change the AP location to one that is less RF hostile.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 8
An engineer would like to calibrate the RF environment to improve accuracy.
Which wireless attribute is added to the foor-level calculation by calibrating the foor?
A. attenuation
B. TX power
C. multipath
D. SNR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An engineer is performing a predictive wireless design for a Parts Distribution Center which requires data and location services. Which three requirements are inputs to the design? 300-360 dumps (Choose three.)
A. access points with directional antennas
B. continuous -67 dBm coverage from one access point
C. overlapping -75 dBm coverage from three access points
D. overlapping -67 dBm coverage from two access points
E. access points in IPS mode
F. continuous -72 dBm coverage from one access point
G. accesspointsincornersandalongperimeters
Correct Answer: BCG

QUESTION 10
A customer is deploying a Greenfield 802.11ac network on a foor that will support approximately 300 wireless devices.
Which setting needs to be changed on Prime Infrastructure Planning Tool in order to predict the amount of access points the customer needs to service the new foor?
A. Data Coverage Support Margin
B. Demand Settings
C. Add AP Field
D. 802.11n Protocol Support
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two options describe best practices that must be completed after a wireless installation is finished? (Choose two.)
A. Make sure that there are no spaces between the devices on the rack that the Wireless Lan Controller isinstalled.
B. Consult with the customer to ensure that the IT staff has a complete set of design and installationdocuments.
C. Make sure the customer is aware that they should consider purchasing a support contract immediately afterthe installationis complete.
D. Spend time with the customer to show them the controller GUI and inform them how they can reach theCisco TAC if they have any problems.
E. Test all the customer’s wireless devices and applications to ensure they are working properly.
Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 12
An engineer is preparing for an outdoor wireless survey to mesh connect a distant remote building to a connected building.
Which two types of antennas are appropriate for this application? (Choose two.)
A. circular polarized
B. patch
C. dish
D. Yagi
E. omni
Correct Answer: CD

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Web Applications
Exam Name: Developing Windows Azure and Web Services
Exam Code: 70-487
Total Questions: 113 Q&As
70-487 dumps
QUESTION 1
Data provided by Consolidated Messenger is cached in the HttpContext.Cache object.
You need to ensure that the cache is correctly updated when new data arrives.
What should you do?
A. Ensure that the EffectivePrivateBytesLimit value is greater than the size of the database file.
B. Change the sliding expiration of the cache item to 12 hours.
C. Use the SqlCacheDependency type configured with a connection string to the database file.
D. Use the CacheDependency type configured to monitor the SFTP target folder.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Historical flight information data will be stored in Windows Azure Table Storage using the FlightInfo class as the table entity.
There are millions of entries in the table. Queries for historical flight information specify a set of airlines to search and whether the query should return only late flights. Results should be ordered by flight name.
You need to specify which properties of the FlightInfo class should be used at the partition and row keys to ensure that query results are returned as quickly as possible.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Use the WasLate property as the row key.
B. Use the Airline property as the row key.
C. Use the WasLate property as the partition key
D. Use the Arrival property as the row key.
E. Use the Airline property as the partition key.
F. Use the Flight property as the row key.
Correct Answer: CF

QUESTION 3
You need to deploy the application to the Windows Azure production environment to meet the business requirements.
What should you do? 70-487 dumps (To answer, select the appropriate button in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
70-487 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-487 dumps
QUESTION 4
You need to parse flight information from Blue Yonder Airlines. The content of the XML file is shown below.
70-487 dumps
Some airlines do not specify the timezone of the arrival time. If the timezone is not specified, then it should be interpreted per the business requirements.
You need to implement the LoadFlights() and Parse() methods of the BlueYonderLoader class.
What should you do? (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location in the answer area. Each segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-487 dumps
70-487 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-487 dumps
70-487 dumps
QUESTION 5
You need to regenerate the service proxies to include task-based asynchronous method signatures.
Which command should you use?
A. aspnet_regiis.exe /t:code http://localhost:62965/UploadCallbackService.svc
B. svcutil.exe /t:code http://localhost:62965/UploadCallbackService.svc
C. aspnet_compiler.exe /t:code http://localhost:62965/UploadCallbackService.svc
D. aspnet_regiis.exe /t:code http://localhost:62965/UploadService.svc
E. svcutil.exe /t:code http://localhost:62965/UploadService.svc
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You add a class named ShippingInfo.
You need to modify the IShippingService interface and the ShippingInfo class to meet the technical requirements.
What should you do? 70-487 dumps (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
70-487 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-487 dumps
QUESTION 7
You need to modify the ExecuteCommandProcedure() method to meet the technical requirements.
Which code segment should you use?
Select and Place:
70-487 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-487 dumps
QUESTION 8
The PurchaseOrders.xml file contains all of the purchase orders for the day.
You need to query the XML file for all of the shipping addresses.
Which code segment should you use?
70-487 dumps
70-487 dumps
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You need to choose the appropriate data access technology for the cookbook area of the web application.
Which data access technology should you choose?
A. WCF Data Services
B. LINQ to SQL
C. Entity Framework
D. ADO.NET
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You need to update the ImportBooks() method to use database transactions.
Which code segment should you use? 70-487 dumps
A. SqlConnection.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.RepeatableRead);
B. SqlConnection.BeginTransaction(IsolationLeve.ReadUnconvnited);
C. SqlConneetion.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.Serializable);
D. SqlConnection.BeginTransaction(IsolationLevel.Snapshot);
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
You are preparing to develop a set of libraries for a company.The libraries must be shared across the company.
You need to create a remote NuGet feed that exposes the libraries.
What should you do? (Each answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Install the NuGet.Feed Package.
B. Install the NuGet.Server Package.
C. Configure the Packages folder located in the system.webserver section of the web application’s Web.config.
D. Create a new Empty Web Site in Visual Studio 2012.
E. Configure the Packages folder located in the appSettings section of the web application’s Web.config.
F. Add packages to the Packages folder.
G. Create a new Empty Web Application in Visual Studio 2012.
Correct Answer: BEFG

QUESTION 12
You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that reads and writes data from a SQL Server database.
You need to prevent the application from reading data that is locked by other transactions. You also need to prevent exclusive range locks.
Which isolation level should you use?
A. ReadCommitted
B. Serializable
C. Repeatable
D. ReadUncommitted
Correct Answer: D

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[Latest Dumps] Useful Microsoft MCSA 70-410 Dumps Exam Materials And Youtube Update Free Demo

Useful latest Microsoft MCSA 70-410 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo update free shared. Get the best Microsoft MCSA 70-410 dumps exam training resources and study guides free download from lead4pass. “Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012” is the name of Microsoft MCSA https://www.lead4pass.com/70-410.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. High quality Microsoft MCSA 70-410 dumps pdf practice questions and answers update free try, 100% success and guarantee to pass!

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSA
Exam Name: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Exam Code: 70-410
Total Questions: 503 Q&As
70-410 dumps
QUESTION 1
You work as a senior administrator at L2P.com. The L2P.com network consists of a single domain named L2P.com. All servers on the L2P.com network have Windows Server 2012 installed, and all workstations have Windows 8 installed.
You are running a training exercise for junior administrators. You are currently discussing the Always Offline Mode.
Which of the following is TRUE with regards to the Always Offline Mode? (Choose all that apply.)
A. It allows for swifter access to cached files and redirected folders.
B. To enable Always Offline Mode, you have to satisfy the forest and domain functional-level requirements, as well as schema requirements.
C. It allows for lower bandwidth usage due to users are always working offline.
D. To enable Always Offline Mode, you must have workstations running Windows 7 or Windows Server 2008 R2.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 2
Your network contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to install the Remote Desktop Services server role on Server2 remotely from Server1. Which tool should you use?
A. The dsadd.exe command
B. The Server Manager console
C. The Remote Desktop Gateway Manager console
D. The Install-RemoteAccess cmdlet
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a domain controller named DC1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You need to configure a central store for the Group Policy Administrative Templates. What should you do on DC1?
A. From Server Manager, create a storage pool.
B. From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the SYSVOL\contoso.com\policies folder.
C. From Server Manager, add the Group Policy Management feature
D. From Windows Explorer, copy the PolicyDefinitions folder to the NETLOGON share.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. 70-410 dumps Server1 has the Hyper-V server role installed. Server1 is connected to two Fibre Channel SANs and is configured as shown in the following table.
70-410 dumps
You have a virtual machine named VM1. You need to configure VM1 to connect to SAN1.
What should you do first?
A. Add one HBA
B. Create a Virtual Fibre Channel SAN.
C. Create a Hyper-V virtual switch.
D. Configure network adapter teaming.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You install Windows Server 2012 R2 on a standalone server named Server1. You configure Server1 as a VPN server.
You need to ensure that client computers can establish PPTP connections to Server1. Which two firewall rules should you create? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.Choose two.)
A. An inbound rule for protocol 47
B. An outbound rule for protocol 47
C. An inbound rule for TCP port 1723
D. An inbound rule for TCP port 1701
E. An outbound rule for TCP port 1723
F. An outbound rule for TCP port 1701
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 6
You have a server named Server2 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. Server2 has the Hyper-V server role installed. The disks on Server2 are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You create a virtual machine on Server2 named VM1.
You need to ensure that you can configure a pass-through disk for VM1.
What should you do?
70-410 dumps
A. Convert Disk 1 to a basic disk.
B. Take Disk 1 offline.
C. Create a partition on Disk 1.
D. Convert Disk 1 to a MBR disk.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to ensure that the local Administrator account on all computers is renamed to L_Admin. Which Group Policy settings should you modify?
A. Security Options
B. User Rights Assignment
C. Restricted Groups
D. Preferences
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. All servers run Windows Server 2012 R2. An application named Appl.exe is installed on all client computers. 70-410 dumps Multiple versions of Appl.exe are installed on different client computers. Appl.exe is digitally signed. You need to ensure that only the latest version of Appl.exe can run on the client computers.
What should you create?
A. An application control policy packaged app rule
B. A software restriction policy certificate rule
C. An application control policy Windows Installer rule
D. An application control policy executable rule
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
You have a server that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. The disks on the server are configured as shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit button.) You need to create a storage pool that contains Disk 1 and Disk 2. What should you do first?
70-410 dumps
A. Delete volume E
B. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to dynamic disks
C. Convert Disk 1 and Disk 2 to GPT disks
D. Create a volume on Disk 2
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2. You add a 4-TB disk named Disk 5 to Server1. You need to ensure that you can create a 3-TB volume on Disk 5. What should you do?
A. Create a storage pool.
B. Convert the disk to a dynamic disk.
C. Create a VHD, and then attach the VHD.
D. Convert the disk to a GPT disk.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1 that runs a full installation of Windows Server 2012 R2. You need to uninstall the graphical user interface (GUI) on Server1. 70-410 dumps
You must achieve this goal by using the minimum amount of Administrative effort. What should you do?
A. Reinstall Windows Server 2012 R2 on the server.
B. From Server Manager, uninstall the User Interfaces and Infrastructure feature.
C. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature PowerShell-ISE
D. From Windows PowerShell, run Uninstall-WindowsFeature Desktop-Experience.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. The computer accounts for all member servers are located in an organizational unit (OU) named Servers. You link a Group Policy object (GPO) to the Servers OU.
You need to ensure that the domain’s Backup Operators group is a member of the local Backup Operators group on each member server. The solution must not remove any groups from the local Backup Operators groups.
What should you do?
A. Add a restricted group named adatum\Backup Operators. Add Backup Operators to the This group is a member of list.
B. Add a restricted group named adatum\Backup Operators. Add Backup Operators to the Members of this group list.
C. Add a restricted group named Backup Operators. Add adatum\Backup Operators to the This group is a member of list.
D. Add a restricted group named Backup Operators. Add adatum\Backup Operators to the Members of this group list.
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Microsoft Office 365 70-346 dumps exam practice questions and answers update free shared. Prepare for Microsoft 70-346 exam with high quality Microsoft Office 365 70-346 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo free update. “Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements” is the name of Microsoft Office 365 https://www.lead4pass.com/70-346.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Microsoft exam. The best and most Microsoft Office 365 70-346 dumps exam training materials in PDF format, pass Microsoft 70-346 exam test easily at first try.

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Office 365
Exam Name: Managing Office 365 Identities and Requirements
Exam Code: 70-346
Total Questions: 211 Q&As
70-346 dumps
QUESTION 1
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company synchronizes the local Active Directory objects with a central identity management system.
The environment has the following characteristics:
• Each department has its own organizational unit (OU).
• The company has OU hierarchies for partner user accounts.
• All user accounts are maintained by the identity management system.
You need to ensure that partner accounts are NOT synchronized with Office 365.
What should you do?
A. Configure OU-based filtering by using the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
B. In the Windows Azure Active Directory portal, configure OU-based filtering.
C. Configure user attribute-based filtering by using the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
D. In the Windows Azure Active Directory portal, configure user attribute-based filtering.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A company migrates to Office 365. 2,000 active users have valid Office 365 licenses assigned.
An additional 5,000 user accounts were created during the migration and testing processes. These users do not have any licensesassigned.
You need to remove the Office 365 user accounts that do not have any licenses assigned by using the least amount of administrative effort.
Which Windows PowerShell command should you run?
A. Get-MsolUser -All -EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
B. Get-MsolUser-EnabledFilter “DisabledOnly” | Remove-MsolUser -Force
C. Get-MsolUser -All -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser -Force
D. Get-MsolUser -UnlicensedUsersOnly | Remove-MsolUser–Force
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Your company purchases an Office 365 plan. The company has an Active Directory Domain Services domain. 70-346 dumps
User1 must manage Office 365 delegation for the company.
You need to ensure that User1 can assign administrative roles to other users.
What should you do?
A. Use a password administrator account to assign the role to User1.
B. Use a user management administrator account to assign the role to User1.
C. Create an Office 365 tenant and assign User1 the global administrator role.
D. Create an Office 365 tenant and assign User1 the password administrator role.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
An organization deploys an Office 365 tenant.
User accounts must be synchronized to Office 365 by using the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
You have the following password policies:
• Passwords for the on-premises Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) user accounts are at least six characters long.
• Passwords for Office 365 user accounts are at least eight characters long.
You need to ensure that the user accounts will be synchronized. Which user accounts will be synchronized?
A. All user accounts
B. No user accounts
C. User accounts with a password length of at least 8 characters
D. User accounts with a password length of at least 14 characters
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company. The company has two administrators named User1 and User2.
Users must be able to perform the activities as shown in the following table:
70-346 dumps
You need to grant the appropriate administrative role to each user.
What should you do? To answer, drag the appropriate role to the correct user. Each role may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
70-346 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps
QUESTION 6
You are the Office 365 administrator for your company.
You must use Windows PowerShell to manage cloud identities in Office 365. You must use a computer that runs Windows 8 to perform the management tasks.
You need to ensure that the Windows 8 computer has the necessary software installed.
What should you install first?
A. Microsoft Office 365 Best Practices Analyzer for Windows PowerShell
B. Windows PowerShell 4.0
C. Remote Server Administration Tools for Windows
D. Microsoft Online Services Sign-in Assistant
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Contoso, Ltd. plans to use Office 365 for email services and Lync Online. Contoso has four unique domain names.
You need to migrate domain names to Office 365.
Which two domain names should you exclude from the migration? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. contoso.us
B. contoso
C. contoso.local
D. contoso.co
Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 8
Litware Inc. has an Office 365 Enterprise El plan. Employees have access to all Office 365 services. 70-346 dumps
Employees in the human resources (HR) department must continue to use the on-premises SharePoint 2013 deployment due to legal requirements.
You need to disable access to SharePoint Online for all HR department employees.
How should you complete the relevant Windows PowerShell commands? To answer, drag the appropriate Windows PowerShell segment to the correct location or locations in the answer area. Each Windows PowerShell segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
70-346 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-346 dumps
QUESTION 9
Your company has a hybrid deployment of Office 365. You need to verify whether free/busy information sharing with external users is configured.
Which Windows PowerShell cmdlet should you use?
A. Test-OutlookConnectivity
B. Test-FederationTrust
C. Get-OrganizationRelationship
D. Get-MSOLDomainFederationSettings
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A company plans to use Office 365 to provide email services for users.
You need to ensure that a custom domain name is used.
What should you do first?
A. Add the custom domain name to Office 365 and then verify it.
B. Verify the existing domain name.
C. Create an MX record in DNS.
D. Create a CNAME record in DNS.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
An organization plans to migrate to Office 365. You use the Windows Azure Active Directory (AD) Sync tool.
Several users will not migrate to Office 365. You must exclude these users from synchronization. All users must continue to authenticate against the on-premises Active Directory.
You need to synchronize the remaining users.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Populate an attribute for each user account.
B. Disable the user accounts in Active Directory.
C. Perform a full synchronization.
D. Configure the connection filter.
E. Run the Windows PowerShell command Set-MsolDirSyncEnabled -EnableDirSync $false.
Correct Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 12
You use a centralized identity management system as a source of authority for user account information. You export a list of new user accounts to a file on a daily basis. Your company uses a local Active Directory for storing user accounts for on-premises solutions.
You are configuring the Windows Azure Active Directory Sync tool.
New user accounts must be created in both the local Active Directory and Office 365. You must import user account data into Office 365 daily.
You need to import the new users. What should you do?
A. Use the Office 365 admin center to import the file.
B. Create a Windows PowerShell script to import account data from the file into Active Directory.
C. Use the Windows Azure Management Portal to import the file.
D. Create a Windows PowerShell script that uses the MSOnline module to import account data from the file.
Correct Answer: B

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