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Question 1:

What is a packaged PaaS Solution?

A. Pivotal Cloud Foundry

B. Google App Engine

C. Microsoft Azure

D. Apache MESOS

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

As a cloud architect you are working with an organization to choose between a DIY or packaged PaaS Solution.

What is a selection criterion that applies to DIY?

A. Has a higher cost of licensing and support

B. Is a more stable platform

C. Has built-in governance policies

D. Supports automated configuration

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

An organization wants to provide its developers the ability to deploy VMs. These VMs have software and libraries installed that are used to develop applications. Each VM will be configured with the same IP address and will be able to download application code from a central server. What will be included in the design to support these requirements?

A. VXLANs and an OS firewall

B. VXLANs and virtual firewall appliances

C. VLANs and virtual IDS appliances

D. VSANs and virtual IDS appliances

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

As a cloud architect, you are designing a CI solution to ensure that you isolate specific workloads for security. What should you design for?

A. High Availability

B. Fault Tolerance

C. Multi-tenancy

D. Redundancy

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

A cloud architect is designing a packaged PaaS Solution for an organization. One of the primary concerns of the organization is application portability. What consideration focuses on portability?

A. A technology must be chosen that enables portable PaaS architectures

B. Monitoring at the application level must capture and evaluate key metrics

C. A subscription-by-time cost model must be chosen to manage costs

D. A secure connector must be chosen to ensure secure API access to data

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

You have the following requirements for a CMP solution: Lower acquisition costs of software Control over deployment of software release cycles Option to have paid support What type of CMP solution should you recommend?

A. Proprietary

B. Software defined

C. Open-source

D. Vendor supported open-source

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

As a cloud architect designing a DIY PaaS Solution, you have concluded that using containers to support the target application is the best choice. What consideration supports that decision?

A. An application will run on multiple platforms with minor modification

B. The abstraction of the physical hardware limits vulnerability

C. Multiple operating systems can be supported in a single container

D. The container supports the required software stack

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

You are designing the CMP structure. Where should you define the pods?

A. Fault domain

B. Private cloud VM

C. Availability zone

D. Public cloud VM

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

An organization wants to deploy a CMP solution in a private cloud. What requirements influence the sizing of the underlying cloud management infrastructure?

A. Size of the service portal and catalog

B. CMP version and functions it provides

C. Type of services and cost of each service

D. High availability and performance

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

You are creating a cloud infrastructure design for an organization. You learn that, for compliance reasons, the organization needs to maintain a separate set of infrastructures for certain deployed services. Which part of the design will be impacted by this requirement?

A. Number of compute pools

B. Number of service catalogs

C. Over-commitment ratio

D. Service catalog sizing

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

You are analyzing the performance data to avoid oversizing of a CI solution. What date and time frame should you use?

A. Average production time over multiple days

B. Peak production times over multiple days

C. Average production time over a single day

D. Peak production times over a single day

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

You are designing a cloud to support an Oracle OLTP environment. What is the recommended read/write ratio to use in this environment?

A. 2 to 1

B. 3 to 1

C. 4 to 1

D. 5 to 1

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

A cloud architect is tasked with designing a backup using the Remote with Cloud Gateway Deployment Model. What is a design consideration?

A. Replication settings should be driven by organizational requirements around RPO

B. Backup servers are required to communicate with cloud storage interfaces

C. Larger initial backup sets may take long times to complete delivery

D. Gateways must contain backup software to offload backup server tasks

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

In a cloud design, an architect has defined a separate trust zone for host management. The hosts will be running open source hypervisors. What should be included in the design deliverables to support this separate trust zone?

A. Federated authentication source and preferred QoS network settings

B. Isolated management network and a federated super-user account

C. Separate PKI and encrypted CMP portal access

D. Separate PKI and a separate authentication source

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

What is the benefit of Hot Spare disks?

A. Enable efficient use of SSDs and NL SAS drive technologies

B. Provide space-optimal data redundancy against multiple drive failures

C. Handle any disk failure by distributing data over multiple drives

D. Replace failed drives by taking the identity of the failed drive

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Drag and Drop

Match the data access type in a SAN fabric to the correct description.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

Which functionality available in an HPE 3 Par StoreServ 8400 system that is not available in an HPE 3par Storesrve 7200?

A. Data at Rest Encryption

B. Persistent Checksum end-to-end data integrity (correct)

C. Adaptive optimization and dynamic Optimization

D. Online import license

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which storage principle would benefits of customer who has several departments in their organization with different storage needs?

A. Autonomic Management

B. Federated storage

C. Scale out storage

D. Multi-tenancy

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A customer with restricted budget has an existing HPE 3PAR storeserver 8200 using 10kfast class and near line drives because of the implementation of new application .the workload has shifted to be read intensive therefore ,they want to increase the read I/O performance What should they add to their environment?

A. A tier with 15k fast class 600 GB drive for new CPG, configure AO policy to advantage of new resources

B. Two 400 GB SSD drives and enable adaptive flash cache (page 173) eed to check

C. A tier with 15k fast class drive and implement thin provisioned deduplicated virtual volumes

D. A tier of SSD and implement thin provisioned virtual volume

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which management interface uses four basic commands (Create ,read, update ad delete )to enable administrators to define ad radically simply management processes?

A. Rest API

B. WMI

C. SMI-S

D. WEBEM

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

What can move data directly from a snapshot to backup storage independent of backup server software?

A. SSMC

B. Virtual Lock

C. CLI

D. Express Protect

Correct Answer: D

The Express Protect feature offers data protection by facilitating Express Protect of snapshots from HPE 3PAR StoreServ to HPE StoreOnce.


Question 7:

A large organization is experiencing exponential data growth of object storage due to recent mergers and acquisition .They need an on-premise solution to optimize cost at petabyte scale Which components should you recommend for a software-defined solution ?(select two)

A. HPE Appolo 4510 server

B. HPE Complete -Scalability RING

C. HPE Synergy 660 Gen10 compute modules

D. HPE complete -CTERA

E. HPE 3PAR Storeserv 9450c

Correct Answer: AB


Question 8:

Which SAN topology offers the highest centralized data access performance?

A. Meshed

B. Cascaded

C. Core-Edge

D. Ring

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A customer need to implement a new SAN fabric for their growing environment .The new SAN should provide a high performance and port-efficient network with many-to-many connectivity .Because of changing requirement and the possible acquisition of another company in the near future. The customer cannot predit the I/O traffic pattern within the SAN .The customer also concerned about availability. Which type of SAN topology should you recommend?

A. Core-edge fabric

B. Single switch fabric

C. Cascaded fabric

D. Meshed fabric

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which storage tool in the storage assessment foundry provide data protection analysis?

A. Ninja protected (318)

B. NinjaCrawler

C. Ninja Thin

D. Ninja Stars

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

A customer is a cloud service provider with infrastructure powered by HPE 3PAR Storeserv 9000.The customer is concern about their ability to ensure the quality of service and protect their tenants from unpredictable bursts of I/O from other tenants. What should you recommended to your customer ?

A. Use priority optimization to enable service level for workloads

B. Use virtual domain to automatically set multi-tenant policies

C. Use dynamic optimization to automatically manage quality of service

D. Use adaptive optimization to optimize service level automatically

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

A customer has an existing configuration consisting of first class and nearline SAS drive in an 8000 SFF enclosure. They add two SFF 8000enclosure that are fully populated with nearline drives to an existing HPE 3Par storeserv 8400 array. What should the customer do to optimize their storage configuration?

A. Defrag the CPG and run align drive on their system

B. Run tunesys and on the array (275)

C. Enable space reclamation

D. Create new CPG for the newly installed drivers

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which storage protocol is supported by virtual connect Flex-10?

A. FCoE

B. FC

C. ISCSI

D. FCIP

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

A customer need a new storage system for visual desktop infrastructure environment to reduce the time required to provision new desktop. Which HPE solution should you recommended to fulfill this customers requirements?

A. Snapclones on HPE MSA 2040

B. SmartClone on HPE store virtual VSA(54)

C. Storage pool on HPE store Easy

D. Virtual Copy on HPE 3Par storeServ

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

A customer needs to be manually map out preferred paths within a multi-switch fabric, based on application ,priority ,and topology, while allowing failover to a non-preferred path if the preferred path fails, Which B-series FC switch functionality should be used to provide this?

A. Quality of services

B. Enhanced group management

C. Frame filtering

D. Traffic isolation Zones

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Select the method for updating table metadata that provides for the most control over updating features and can be run in batch.

A. Update Metadata option in Data Library Manager in SAS Management Console.

B. Update Library Metadata task in SAS Enterprise Guide.

C. Update Metadata option in SAS Data Integration Studio.

D. METALIB procedure using SAS code.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

A host is using an LDAP provider as a back-end authentication mechanism. For this setup, how does the SAS server view the authentication?

A. integrated authentication

B. back-end authentication

C. internal authentication

D. host authentication

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which statement is a disadvantage of pre-assigned libraries?

A. The server does not become available to the user until all pre-assigned libraries have been assigned.

B. Pre-assigned libraries must be identical across all SAS client applications.

C. Pre-assigned libraries must be assigned using the autoexec file.

D. The administrator cannot control which engine is used to access data in a pre-assigned library.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Given the following authorization setup:

-Mary is a direct member of DeptA and DeptB

Library Sales2 has an ACT denial for DeptA.

Library Sales2 has an explicit grant for DeptB. Which statement is true?

A.

Mary can see Library Sales2.

B.

Mary cannot see Library Sales2.

C.

Mary can see Library Sales2 for data associated withDeptB only.

D.

Mary can see Library Sales2 for data flagged as PUBLIC only.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which statement regarding precedence principles for authorization is FALSE?

A. Settings on an item have priority over settings on the item\’s parent.

B. If identity precedence and the type of setting do not resolve a conflict, the outcome is a denial.

C. Explicit settings have priority over ACT settings.

D. A direct member of multiple groups cannot have conflicting settings.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

A platform administrator needs to register OLAP cubes. What permission levels are required for this task?

A. CM for the target folder andWMMfor the OLAP schema.

B. WM for the OLAP schema and RMLE for the target folder.

C. WM for the target folder and WMM for the OLAP schema.

D. WM for the OLAP schema and WMM for the target folder.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which permissions are found on all metadata item types?

A. RM WM RMM RW Administer

B. RM WM RW Administer

C. RM WM Administer

D. RM WM

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

A platform administrator needs to associate a library with an application server.

What permission level on the application server will the platform administrator need for this task?

A. CM

B. RMLE

C. WM

D. WMM

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A platform administrator wants to provide SAS Administrators and service identities with exclusive read access to metadata. Which permission levels should the platform administrator assign?

A. RM for PUBLIC, SAS Administrators, and SAS System Services

B. RM and R for PUBLIC, SAS Administrators, and SAS System Services

C. RM for PUBLIC, and R for SAS Administrators and SAS System Services

D. R for PUBLIC, and RM for SAS Administrators and SAS System Services

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

An identity hierarchy specifies a list of identities and the order of precedence of those identities. Which listing of identities is ranked from highest priority to lowest priority?

A. User, direct group, indirect group, SASUSERS, PUBLIC

B. User, SASUSERS, PUBLIC,directgroup, indirect group

C. SASUSERS, PUBLIC, User, direct group, indirect group

D. direct group, indirect group, User, PUBLIC, SASUSERS

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

A platform administrator wants to physically segregate the physical storage for metadata in a single environment. What should the platform administrator create?

A. additional foundation repositories

B. additional custom repositories

C. additional project repositories

D. additional repository libraries

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

If a server or spawner is failing to start, what would be the most appropriate first step in troubleshooting the cause of the failure?

A. Run the SAS Deployment Manager to reconfigure the servers.

B. Modify the SAS Server configuration files.

C. Copy the command line used to invoke the server and issue it directly in the operating system, noting any errors or information generated.

D. Use SAS Management Console to modify the server\’s configuration.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Metadata repositories are a collection of files in a physical folder. In what format are the files stored?

A. SAS data sets

B. SAS metadata sets

C. XML

D. SGML

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

By default, the SASMeta application server context:

A. can only be accessed by unrestricted users.

B. is a backup for theSASApp application server context.

C. only holds the metadata server definition.

D. holds the metadata server definition and a definition for a workspace server and DATA step batch server used for administrative functions.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which role is not pre-defined?

A. Enterprise Guide: Unrestricted

B. Enterprise Guide: Advanced

C. Enterprise Guide: Programming

D. Enterprise Guide: OLAP

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

When using an RF splitter to connect one transceiver to sector antennas loss is incurred. What is this loss called?

A. Conversion loss

B. Through loss

C. Active loss

D. Intentional loss

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

XYZ Corporation is experiencing connectivity problems with their existing building-to- building bridge link. A concrete wall on the roof of one building is partially blocking the Fresnel Zone, and the connection is dropping many frames. The administrator moves the antenna to an area not obstructed by the concrete wall and then realizes the RF cable cannot reach the new location.

If an extension cable is added to move the antenna, what are the likely results?

A. The data throughput rate will increase because VSWR will decrease.

B. The Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (EIRP) will decrease.

C. The antenna\’s azimuth beamwidth will decrease.

D. The size of the Fresnel zone will increase.

E. The likelihood of a direct lightning strike will increase.

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

As a consultant, you\’ve been hired by XYZ Company to provide recommendations about client device selection, operation, and interoperability. What information should be considered to help them choose the right WLAN client devices?

A. 802.11n OFDM is more susceptible to high-power, narrowband interference than 802.11a OFDM

B. In order toearn Wi-Fi Alliance certification, 802.11n clients stations are required to support both 2.4 and 5 GHz frequencies

C. 802.11ac devices support the features of the VHT PHY only in the 5 GHz frequency band.

D. 802.11ac is not backwardly compatible with 802.11n or 802.11a.

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

As a station moves away from the access point to which it is associated, it changes its data rate from 600 Mbps to 540 Mbps and then to 450 Mbps.

What IEEE 802.11 term or phase is used to describe this functionality?

A. Dynamic Rate Switching

B. Multirate Control

C. Modulation and Coding Selection

D. Rate Set Selectivity

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

What factors influence the distance that an RF signal can be effectively received? (Choose 3)

A. Transmitting station\’s power source

B. Receiving station\’s radio sensitivity

C. Free Space Path Loss

D. MAC layer encryption

E. Transmitting station\’soutput power

F. Temperature in the Fresnel zone

Correct Answer: BCE


Question 6:

What factors will have the most significant impact on the amount of wireless bandwidth available to each station within a BSS? (Choose 2)

A. The number of clientstations associated to the BSS

B. The power management settings in theaccess point\’s beacons

C. The presence of co-located (10m away) access points on non-overlapping channels

D. The data rates at which nearby client stations are transmitting and receiving data

E. The layer 3 protocol used by each station to transmit data over the wireless link

Correct Answer: AD


Question 7:

What WLAN system feature is required to produce a scenario with the following configuration on a single access point? (Choose 2)

1.

SSID = Guest / BSSID = AA:AA:AA:AA:AA:AA /

2.

SSID = Corporate / BSSID = BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB /

3.

SSID = Corporate / BSSID = BB:BB:BB:BB:BB:BB /

VLAN = 22 / Subnet = 192.168.22.0 / RF Channel = 6

VLAN = 33 / Subnet = 192.168.33.0 / RF Channel = 6 /User Type A

VLAN = 44 / Subnet = 192.168.44.0 / RF Channel = 6 / User Type B

A. Multiple WLAN Profiles

B. Call Admission Control

C. Virtual Cell with SCA

D. Access Categories

E. User-based authentication

F. Dual-radio AP hardware

G. Integrated DHCP server

Correct Answer: AE


Question 8:

As an RF wave propagates through space, the wave front experiences natural expansion that reduces its signal strength in an area.What term describes the rate at which this expansion happens?

A. MU-MIMO

B. Inverse square law

C. Fresnel zone thinning

D. Ohm\’s law

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

What is an advantage of using WPA2-Personal instead of WEP-128 as a security solution for 802.11 networks?

A. WPA2-Personal uses 802.1X/EAP for authentication, and WEP-128 uses preshared keys.

B. WPA2-Personal is basedon IEEE 802.11 industry standards, but WEP is not.

C. WPA2-Personal uses CCMP for encryption, and WEP-128 uses TKIP for encryption.

D. WPA2-Personal usesdynamic encryption keys, and WEP-128 uses static keys.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

What problems may occur when there are hidden nodes in the BSS?

A. Increase in downlink (transmitted by AP) frame retries.

B. High retransmission count for a subset of client stations.

C. Use of frame fragmentation with fragment bursts.

D. Excessive use of null data frames.

E. Duration values vary widely in each data frame.

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

The IEEE 802.11a/n/ac physical layer technologies utilize the 5 GHz frequency band. What is true ofthe channels in this frequency spectrum?

A. 14 channels are available worldwide.

B. 11 channels are available worldwide.

C. Regulatory domains worldwide require DFS and TPC in all these channels.

D. DFS may be required in some regulatory domains on somechannels.

E. 802.11 channels areseparated by 5 Mhz

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

What facts are true regarding controllers and APs in a Split MAC architecture? (Choose 2)

A. An IP tunnel is established between the AP and controller for AP management and control functions.

B. Using centralized data forwarding, APs never tag Ethernet frames with VLAN identifiers or 802.1p CoS.

C. With 802.1X/EAP security, the AP acts as the supplicant and the controller acts as the authenticator.

D. Management and data frame types must be processed locally by the AP, while control frame types must be sent to the controller.

E. In a distributed data forwarding model, the AP handles frame encryption and decryption.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 13:

The OSI model is a 7-layer model forunderstanding the functions of a communication system. What OSI sublayers are specifically addressed by the IEEE 802.11-2012 standard? (Choose 2)

A. Network

B. PPDU

C. PLCP

D. MAC

E. IP

F. Transport

Correct Answer: CD


Question 14:

The center frequency of channel 1 in the 2.4 GHz band is 2.412 GHz (2412 MHz).

What is the center frequency of channel 4?

A. 2.413 GHz

B. 2.417 GHz

C. 2.422 GHz

D. 2.427 GHz

E. 2.437 GHz

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which one of the following frequency ranges is not specified for use by IEEE 802.11 radios as of 802.11-2012?

A. 600-630 MHz

B. 2.4000-2.4835 MHz

C. 5.725-5.874 GHz

D. 5.15-5.25 GHz

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator currently manages a NetScaler environment in a retail company that is growing quickly and may soon double its volume of business. Currently, a NetScaler MPX 5550, which handles web and SSL transactions, is in place, but is close to full capacity. Due to the forecasted growth increase, the administrator needs to find a cost-effective solution.

What can the administrator recommend to management in order to cost effectively handle the growth?

A. Perform license upgrade to NetScaler MPX 5650

B. Perform hardware upgrade to NetScaler SDX 14100

C. Perform hardware upgrade to NetScaler MPX 8005

D. Another MPX 5550 appliance

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

What is the effect of the set csv server vserver-CS-1 -redirectURL http://www.newdomain.com/mysite/ command?

A. If the status of vserver-CS-1 is DOWN, then users will be redirected to http://www.newdomain.com/mysite/ .

B. All the requests without url path /mysite/ will be redirected to http://www.newdomain.com/mysite/.

C. If the vserver-CS-1 encounters high connection rate, then users will be redirected to http://www.newdomain.com/mysite/.

D. All the requests to vserver-CS-1will be redirected to http://www.newdomain.com/mysite/.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Before:

After:

Which Front-End Optimization (FEO) action can a Citrix Administrator use to achieve the results above?

A. Minify CSS

B. Combine CSS

C. Inline CSS

D. Convert linked CSS

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Which two configurations can a Citrix Administrator use to block all the post requests that are larger than 10,000 bytes in order to protect the environment against HashDoS attacks? (Choose two.)

A. add policy expression expr_hashdos_prevention “http.REQ.METHOD.EQ(\”POST\”) andand http.REQ.CONTENT_LENGTH.GT(10000)”add responder policy pol_resp_hashdos_prevention expr_hashdos_prevention DROP NOOPbind responder global pol_resp_hashdos_prevention 70 END –type REQ_OVERRIDE

B. add policy expression expr_hashdos_prevention “http.REQ.METHOD.EQ(\”POST\”) andand http.REQ.CONTENT_LENGTH.GT(10000)”add rewrite policy drop_rewrite expr_hashdos_prevention DROPbind rewrite global drop_rewrite 100 END –type REQ_OVERRIDE

C. add policy expression expr_hashdos_prevention “http.REQ.METHOD.EQ(\”POST\”) || http.REQ.CONTENT_LENGTH.GT(10000)”add responder policy pol_resp_hashdos_prevention expr_hashdos_prevention DROP NOOPbind responder global pol_resp_hashdos_prevention 70 END –type REQ_OVERRIDE

D. add policy expression expr_hashdos_prevention “http.REQ.METHOD.EQ(\”POST\”) || http.REQ.CONTENT_LENGTH.GT(10000)”add rewrite policy drop_rewrite expr_hashdos_prevention DROPbind rewrite global drop_rewrite 100 END – type REQ_OVERRIDE

Correct Answer: AC


Question 5:

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator is configuring SNMP management on the NetScaler to receive alerts when something fails. The administrator was confident that the Manager, Alarms and SNMP Traps were configured correctly. The following week, there was a NetScaler-related outage and the administrator did NOT get any alerts.

What could be the reason for the SNMP alert failure?

A. The Community Name was NOT configured on the NetScaler SNMP Trap Destination settings.

B. The NetScaler only has Standard licensing.

C. The NetScaler is configured for SNMP version 1.

D. The NetScaler Application Firewall is blocking the alerts from going out.

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Scenario: A Citrix Administrator has executed the following command:

set httpcallout1 -cacheForSecs 120

What will be the effect of this command?

A. The cache duration of the HTTP callout response is set to 120 seconds.

B. The cache duration of the HTTP request is set to 120 seconds.

C. The cache duration of the HTTP response is set to 120 seconds.

D. The cache duration of the HTTP callout request is set to 120 seconds.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Which two statements are true about scheduling operations in a pluggable database (PDB)? (Choose two.)

A. Scheduler jobs for a PDB can be defined only at the container database (CDB) level.

B. A job defined in a PDB runs only if that PDB is open.

C. Scheduler attribute setting is performed only at the CDB level.

D. Scheduler objects created by users can be exported or imported using Data Pump.

E. Scheduler jobs for a PDB can be created only by common users.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 2:

You notice performance degradation in your production Oracle 12c database. You want to know what caused this performance difference.

Which method or feature should you use?

A. Database Replay

B. Automatic Database Diagnostic Monitor (ADDM) Compare Period report

C. Active Session History (ASH) report

D. SQL Performance Analyzer

Correct Answer: B

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E24628_01/server.121/e17635/tdppt_degrade.htm


Question 3:

Examine the command:

SQL> RECOVER DATABASE USING BACKUP CONTROLFILE UNTIL CANCEL;

In which two scenarios is this command required? (Choose two.)

A. The current online redo log file is missing.

B. A data file belonging to a noncritical tablespace is missing.

C. All the control files are missing.

D. The control file backup is older than the database backup.

E. All the data files are missing.

Correct Answer: CD

Reference: http://searchoracle.techtarget.com/answer/Recover-database-using-backup-controlfile-until-cancel


Question 4:

Which two are prerequisites for setting up Flashback Data Archive? (Choose two.)

A. Fast Recovery Area should be defined.

B. Undo retention guarantee should be enabled.

C. Supplemental logging should be enabled.

D. Automatic Undo Management should be enabled.

E. All users using Flashback Data Archive should have unlimited quota on the Flashback Data Archive tablespace.

F. The tablespace in which the Flashback Data Archive is created should have Automatic Segment Space Management (ASSM) enabled.

Correct Answer: DF

Reference: http://www.oracle.com/technetwork/database/focus-areas/storage/total-recall-whitepaper-171749.pdf (page 8)


Question 5:

You want to export the pluggable database (PDB) HR_PDB1 from the multitenant container database (CDB) CDB1 and import it into the CDB2 CDB as the EMP_PDB1 PDB.

Examine the list of possible steps required to perform the task:

1.

Create a PDB named EMP_PDB1.

2.

Export the HR_PDB1 PDB by using the FULL clause.

3.

Open the EMP_PDB1 PDB.

4.

Mount the EMP_PDB1 PDB.

5.

Synchronize the EMP_PDB1 PDB in restricted mode.

6.

Copy the dump file to the Data Pump directory.

7.

Create a Data Pump directory in the EMP_PDB1 PDB.

8.

Import data into EMP_PDB1 with the FULL and REMAP clauses.

9.

Create the same tablespaces in EMP_PDB1 as in HR_PDB1 for new local user objects.

Identify the required steps in the correct order.

A. 2, 1, 3, 7, 6, and 8

B. 2, 1, 4, 5, 3, 7, 6, 9, and 8

C. 2, 1, 3, 7, 6, 9, and 8

D. 2, 1, 3, 5, 7, 6, and 8

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Examine the commands executed in the root container of your multitenant container database (CDB) that has multiple pluggable databases (PDBs):

SQL> CREATE USER c##a_admin IDENTIFIED BY orcl123;

SQL> CREATE ROLE c##role1 CONTAINER=ALL;

SQL> GRANT CREATE VIEW TO C##roleI CONTAINER=ALL;

SQL> GRANT c##role1 TO c##a_admin CONTAINER=ALL;

SQL> REVOKE c##role1 FROM c##a_admin;

What is the result of the revoke command?

A. It executes successfully and the c##role1 role is revoked from the c##a_admin user only in the root container.

B. It fails and reports an error because the container=all clause is not used.

C. It executes successfully and the c##rocl1 role is revoked from the c##a_admin user in the root database and all the PDBs.

D. It fails and reports an error because the container=current clause is not used.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Examine the RMAN command:

RMAN> CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION FOR DATABASE ON; RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG;

Which prerequisite must be met before accomplishing the backup?

A. The password for the encryption must be set up.

B. Oracle wallet for the encryption must be set up.

C. All the tablespaces in the database must be encrypted.

D. Oracle Database Vault must be enabled.

Correct Answer: B

Reference:

configuration encryption will use by Transparent encryption, For transparent encryption, you will need to create a wallet, and it must be open. Transparent encryption will then occur automatically after you have issued the CONFIGURE

ENCRYPTION FOR DATABASE ON or CONFIGURE ENCRYPTION FOR TABLESPACE ON command.

http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E25054_01/backup.1111/e10642/rcmbckad.htm#CEGEJABH


Question 8:

In your database, the tbs percent used parameter is set to 60 and the tbs percent free parameter is set to 20.

Which two storage-tiering actions might be automated when using Information Lifecycle Management (ILM) to automate data movement? (Choose two.)

A. The movement of all segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used

B. Setting the target tablespace to read-only after the segments are moved

C. The movement of some segments to a target tablespace with a higher degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds T3S percent used

D. Taking the target tablespace offline after the segments are moved

E. The movement of some blocks to a target tablespace with a lower degree of compression, on a different storage tier, when the source tablespace exceeds tbs percent used

Correct Answer: BC


Question 9:

You want RMAN to make duplicate copies of data files when using the backup command.

What must you set using the RMAN configure command to achieve this?

A. MAXSETSIZE TO 2;

B. DEVICE TYPE DISK PARALLELISM 2 BACKUP TYPE TO BACKUPSET;

C. CHANNEL DEVICE TYPE DISK FORMAT \’/disk1/%U\’ , \’/disk2/%U\’;

D. DATAFILE BACKUP COPIES FOR DEVICE TYPE DISK TO 2;

Correct Answer: D

Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B14117_01/server.101/b10734/rcmconfg.htm http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/rcmconfa.htm#BRADV137


Question 10:

You create a table with the period for clause to enable the use of the Temporal Validity feature of Oracle Database 12c.

Examine the table definition:

create table employees (empno number, salary number, deptid number, name varchar2(100), period for employee_time);

Which three statements are true concerning the use of the Valid Time Temporal feature for the EMPLOYEES table? (Choose three.)

A. The valid time columns employee_time_start and employee_time_end are automatically created.

B. The same statement may filter on both transaction time and valid temporal time by using the AS OF TIMESTAMP and PERIOD FOR clauses.

C. The valid time columns are not populated by the Oracle Server automatically.

D. The valid time columns are visible by default when the table is described.

E. Setting the session valid time using DBMS_FLASHBACK_ARCHIVE.ENABLE_AT_VALID_TIME sets the visibility for data manipulation language (DML), data definition language (DDL), and queries performed by the session.

Correct Answer: ABC

A: To implement Temporal Validity(TV), 12c offers the option to have two date columns in that table which is having TV enabled using the new clause Period For in the Create Table for the newly created tables or in the Alter Table for the existing ones. The columns that are used can be defined while creating the table itself and will be used in the Period For clause or you can skip having them in the table\’s definition in the case of which, the Period For clause would be creating them internally.


Question 11:

Which two statements are true when row-archival management is enabled? (Choose two.)

A. Visibility of the ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is controlled by the row archival visibility session parameter.

B. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated manually or by a program that can reference activity tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.

C. The row archival visibility session parameter defaults to all rows.

D. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is visible if it is referenced in the select list of a query.

E. The ORA_ARCHIVE_STATE column is updated automatically by the database based on activity tracking columns, to indicate that a row is no longer considered active.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 12:

Examine the initialization parameter that is set in the PFILE:

DB_CREATE_FILE_DEST =\’/u01/app/oracle/oradata/\’

You execute the following command to create CDB1 container database (CDB):

SQL>CREATE DATABASE CDB1 DEFAULT TABLESPACE users DEFAULT TEMPORARY TABLESPACE temp UNDO TABLESPACE Undotbsl ENABLE PLUGGABLE DATABASE SEED SYSTEM DATAFILES SIZE 125M AUTOEXTEND ON NEXT 10M MAXSIZE UNLIMITED SYSAUX DATAFILES SIZE 100M;

Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)

A. It creates a multitenant container database with a root and a seed pluggable database (PDB) that are opened in read-write and read-only modes, respectively.

B. The files created for both the root and seed databases use Oracle Managed Files (OMF).

C. It creates a multitenant container database with the root and seed databases opened and one PDB mounted.

D. It sets the users tablespace as the default for both the root and seed databases.

E. undotbs1 is used as the undo tablespace for both the root and seed databases.

F. It creates a multitenant container database with the root database opened and the seed database mounted.

Correct Answer: ABE


Question 13:

Examine the steps to configure Oracle Secure Backup (OSB) for use with RMAN:

1.

Create media families for data files and archived redo log files.

2.

Configure database backup storage selectors or RMAN media management parameters.

3.

Create an OSB user preauthorized for RMAN operations.

4.

Configure RMAN Access to the OSB SBT.

5.

Disable Non-Uniform Memory Access (NUMA) awareness by setting the ob_ignore_numa parameter to 0.

Identify the steps in the correct order.

A. 1, 4, 3, 2, 5

B. 1, 3, 4, 5, 2

C. 4, 3, 1, 2, 5

D. 4, 3, 5, 1, 2

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Examine the RMAN command:

RMAN> SET ENCRYPTION IDENTIFIED BY ON FOR ALL TABLESPACES; RMAN> BACKUP DATABASE PLUS ARCHIVELOG;

Which type of encryption is used for the backup performed by using this command?

A. password-mode encryption B. dual-mode encryption

C. transparent encryption

D. default encryption

Correct Answer: A

Reference:

http://docs.oracle.com/cd/B28359_01/backup.111/b28270/rcmbckad.htm#CEGEJABH (to make password 璭ncrypted backups)


Question 15:

The following parameters are set for your Oracle 12c database instance:

OPTIMIZER_CAPTURE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES=FALSE OPTIMIZER_USE_SQL_PLAN_BASELINES=TRUE

You want to manage the SQL plan evolution task manually. Examine the following steps:

1. Set the evolve task parameters.

2. Create the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.CREATE_EVOVLE_TASK function.

3. Implement the recommendations in the task by using the DBMS_SPM.IMPLEMENT_EVOLVE_TASK function.

4. Execute the evolve task by using the DBMS_SPM.EXECUTE_EVOLVE_TASK function.

5. Report the task outcome by using the DBMS_SPM.REPORT_EVOLVE_TASK function.

Identify the correct sequence of steps.

A. 2, 4, 5

B. 2, 1, 4, 3, 5

C. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5

D. 1, 2, 4, 5

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Which three statements are true about ABC analysis? (Choose three.)

A. the ABC class is an Item attribute.

B. There can be only three classes A, B, and C.

C. an ABC class must be assigned to at least one ABC group.

D. ABC classes can be used to group Items for planning purposes.

E. ABC classes can be used to identify the value groupings to which your Items belong.

Correct Answer: CDE


Question 2:

What two conditions prevent you from reserving the Inventory? (Choose two.)

A. The inventory module is installed as Shared.

B. The items have a nonreservable material status.

C. The Inventory is in a Standard Cost inventory organization.

D. The Inventory is in an Average Cost inventory organization.

E. The reservation will cause the on-hand quantity to be negative.

Correct Answer: BE


Question 3:

Your customer is planning to dose the accounting period in Inventory. Before closing the period, the customer would like to view the total number of pending transactions in one form. Which form would provide this Information?

A. Pending Status

B. View Material Transactions

C. Find Pending Transactions

D. Transaction Open Interface

E. Inventory Accounting Period

Correct Answer: E


Question 4:

ABC Company uses serial numbers for the following transactions:

1.Purchase order receipt

2.

Miscellaneous receipt

3.

Account alias receipt

The company wants to reuse the same serial numbers for work order completion transactions. Which setup would allow it to reuse the same serial numbers?

A. INV: Validate Returned Serial: No

B. INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes

C. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: No

D. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes

E. INV: Validate Returned Lot: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No

F. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: No

G. INV: Restrict Receipt of Serials: Yes and INV: Validate Returned Serial: Yes

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

What is the correct sequence when defining units of measure (UOM)?

A. UOM Class, UOM, UOM Conversions

B. UOM Class, UOM Conversions, UOM

C. UOM Conversions, UOM Class, UOM

D. UOM Conversions, UOM, UOM Class

E. UOM, UOM Class, UOM Conversions

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Select three true statements about inventory reservations. (Choose three.)

A. A reservation is a link between a supply source and a demand source.

B. For on-hand Inventory supply, there is only one type of reservation called high-level reservation.

C. For on-hand inventory supply, there is only one type of reservation called low-level reservation.

D. Reservations can be created only by Oracle applications or via forms. They cannot be imported from third-party applications.

E. A reservation creates a permanent data link between a supply source and a demand source, and represents a guaranteed allotment of material to a specified demand source.

F. Item reservations prevent the allocation of material you previously set aside for a sales order, account, account alias, inventory allotment, user-defined source, process batch components or, Oracle Complex Maintenance and Repair Overhaul work order components.

G. Item reservations allow the allocation of material you previously set aside for a sales order, account, account alias, inventory allotment, user-defined source, process batch components or, Oracle Complex Maintenance and Repair Overhaul work order components as long as the quantity is not negative.

Correct Answer: AEF


Question 7:

For the profile option TP: INV Cycle Count Entries form to Background processing. what are the system requirements for it to be effective? (Choose two.)

A. the Receiving Transaction manager must be active.

B. the Cost Manager Interface manager must be active.

C. the Move Transaction interface manager must be active.

D. the Material Transaction interface manager must be active.

E. the Lot Move Transaction interface manager must be active.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 8:

Select the true statement about Material Status Control.

A. The profile option “IMV: Default Item Status” must be set to Active at the site level to enforce Material Status Control.

B. The profile option “INV: Material Status Support” must be set to Yes at the site level to enforce Material Status Control.

C. The profile option “INV: Transaction Reasons Security” must be set to Yes at the site level to enforce Material Status Control.

D. The profile option “INV: Allow Expense to Asset Transfer” must be set to Yes at the application level to enforce Material Status Control.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

An Item has its lot Control attribute set to Full Control.

The Active material status does not have any transaction types related to lot control enabled for material status control, this status is assigned to all lot numbers associated with the item.

The subinventory where the Item\’s lot numbers are all located also has the Active material status.

How will the application respond when a user tries to submit a subinventory transfer transaction?

A. The transaction will be accepted.

B. An error message will be generated.

C. The transaction will be accepted, but will be registered as a transfer to and from the same subinventory.

D. The transaction will be accepted, but the item cost update will have to be processed separately by the user.

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

You created an internal requisition to move material between two organizations. The destination is locator controlled. The shipping network between these two locations has been defined as Direct. The shipment transaction fails.

What could be the reason for the failure?

A. Locator default has not been set up In the transaction default.

B. Internal requisitions cannot be used for Direct shipping networks.

C. You did not indicate the locator of the destination on the requisition.

D. Locator-controlled destinations cannot be used for Direct shipping networks.

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

You and your client determined that forecasting methods included with inventory will be sufficient to meet the client\’s needs.

You and the customer have decided to use Focus Forecasting to begin with and move to Exponential Smoothing after one year.

Along the way, your customer noticed some definite trends in demand and has requested your help to re-evaluate the forecasting method.

What do you recommend as a forecasting method? What additional information is needed, if any?

A. Focus Forecasting

B. Exponential Smoothing

C. Exponential Smoothing with Trend Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Beta Coefficients

D. Exponential Smoothing with Season Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Beta Coefficients

E. Exponential Smoothing with Season Enhanced Forecasting, Alpha and Gamma Coefficients

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

Your customer is interested in implementing revision control for the finished goods model items. Which two requirements can be met by implementing revision control? (Choose two.)

A. Changing model functionality when on-hand quantity is available

B. Tracking design changes in other modules (BOM, Work in Process) with a different model number

C. Scrapping the old model and introducing a new model which has changes in functionality and features

D. Accommodating a slight design change in the model, where functionality and features remain the same

E. Tracking design changes in all other functions, such as Bill of Materials, Routings, Work in Process, and so on, using the same model number

Correct Answer: DE


Question 13:

Which two statements apply to a Physical Inventory Tag as defined by Inventory? (Choose two.)

A. Physical Inventory Tags cannot be bar coded.

B. It can contain a count for a group of a given Item.

C. It is produced and printed by the Generate Physical Inventory Tags function.

D. It is unique for every stock locator/item/lot number/serial number combination.

E. It is used to indicate to the warehouse staff that a count has been recorded for that location, so that a duplicate count is not performed.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 14:

Identify four elements of the Inventory that can be assigned a Material Status. (Choose four)

A. Lot

B. Serial

C. Locator

D. Subinventory

E. Operating Unit

F. Inventory Sub-ledger

G. Inventory Organization

Correct Answer: ACFG


Question 15:

Review the organization structure regarding the inventory organizations (JO) and sales organizations (SO).

The sales organizations would not transact Inventory Kerns.

IO 2 would not be used right away, but would be created during the implementation.

What is the minimum number of sub inventories required for this implementation?

A. four (one for each IO being utilized at implementation)

B. five (One for each IO. SOs would not require subinventories.)

C. eight (Inventory and sales organizations require a minimum of one subinventory each.)

D. 10 (Each IO requires at least two subinventories, one for receiving and one for shipping. )

E. 16 (Each IO and SO should have at least two subinventories, one for receiving and one for shipping.)

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Which two statements are correct regarding vSphere cerafcates? (Choose two.)

A. ESXi host upgrades do not preserve the SSL cerafcate and reissue one from the VMware Cerafcate Authority (VMCA).

B. ESXi host upgrades preserve the exisang SSL cerafcate.

C. ESXi hosts have assigned SSL cerafcates from the VMware Cerafcate Authority (VMCA) during install.

D. ESXi hosts have self-signed SSL cerafcates by default.

Correct Answer: BC


Question 2:

Which statement is true for the Path Selecaon Plug-In VMW_PSP_MRU?

A. VMW_PSP_MRU is default for a majority of acave-acave and acave-passive arrays.

B. VMW_PSP_MRU will remain on the selected path even if the state were to change.

C. VMW_PSP_MRU is recommended for Virtual SAN.

D. VMW_PSP_MRU will have no preferred path setng for the Plug-In.

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Refer to the Exhibit.

An administrator has confgured a vSphere 6.x DRS cluster as shown in the Exhibit. Based on the exhibit, which statement is true?

A. A virtual machine can be powered on in the Test Resource Pool with a 6 GB Memory Reservaaon.

B. A virtual machine can be powered on in the Dev Resource Pool with a 8 GB Memory Reservaaon.

C. A virtual machine from both the Test Resource Pool and the Dev Resource Pool can be powered on with a 4 GB Memory Reservaaon.

D. No more virtual machines can be powered on due to insufcient resources.

Correct Answer: A


Question 4:

Which keystore would a vSphere Replicaaon administrator use to manually add an addiaonal Cerafcate Authority cerafcate?

A. hms-truststore.jks

B. hms-keystore.jks

C. cerafcates.ks

D. cacerts.ks

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

An administrator creates a custom ESXi frewall rule using an XML fle, however the rules do not appear in the vSphere Web Client. Which acaon should the administrator take to correct the problem?

A. Load the new rules using esxcli network frewall reload.

B. Load the new rules using esxcli network frewall refresh.

C. Verify the entries in the XML fle and then reboot the ESXi host.

D. Remove the ESXi host from the inventory and add it back.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What is the name of the command line uality that checks for VMFS5 metadata corrupaon?

A. vmkfstools –check

B. voma

C. vmfsanalyzer

D. esxcli vmfs check

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

What is the name of the High Availability agent log?

A. fdm.log

B. ha.log

C. vpxa.log

D. aam.log

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

An administrator wants to set a non-default isolaaon address of 192.168.1.2 for High Availability. Which advanced setng would accomplish this task?

A. Das.isolaaonaddress0=192.168.1.2

B. Das.useisolaaonaddress0=192.168.1.2

C. Das.defaulasolaaonaddress0=192.168.1.2

D. Das.haisolaaonaddress0=192.168.1.2

Correct Answer: A


Question 9:

In a vSphere High Availability cluster, what is the VM Monitoring I/O stats interval default value?

A. 60 seconds

B. 90 seconds

C. 120 seconds

D. 180 seconds

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

Refer to the Exhibit.

An administrator manages a High Availability (HA)/Distributed Resource Scheduler (DRS)-enabled cluster and has confgured the afnity rule shown in the Exhibit. Which two statements best describe the confguraaon shown in the exhibit? (Choose two.)

A. HA will not failover Markeang to ESXi hosts that are not in the Host Group.

B. HA will failover Markeang to ESXi hosts that are not in the Host group.

C. DRS will atempt to keep Markeang on the ESXi host 10.21.38.106.

D. DRS will not atempt to keep Markeang on the ESXi host 10.21.28.106.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 11:

An administrator is confguring an idenaty source for Single Sign-On. The administrator will use the machine that Single Sign-On is running on, but does not want all users on the machine to be visible to SSO. Which Idenaty Source meets this requirement?

A. Acave Directory (Integrated Windows Authenacaaon)

B. Acave Directory as an LDAP Service

C. OpenLDAP

D. LocalOS

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

A process includes an implementation that requires the port number for an external application. Which variable should be used to set the port number for each environment in which the process will run?

A. Global Variable

B. Environment Variable

C. Exposed Process Value

D. Exposed Process Variable

Correct Answer: B


Question 2:

A developer has an Output Text with control ID \’Output_Text1\’ above a Table in a Coach. Within the Table, there are two columns:

1.

The first column is a Text Control with control ID TextV

2.

The second column is a Button control with control ID \’Button1\’

How would a developer set the value of a Text control to \’Clicked\’ when a Button on the same row is pressed?

A. Set the Text\’s \’On Change\’ Event configuration option to: ${Textl=}.setText(\’clicked\’) ;

B. Set the Button\’s \’On click\’ Event configuration options to: ${Text1=}.setText<\'Clicked\') ;

C. Set the Table\’s \’On custom cell\’ Event configuration option to: ${Text1=}.setText(\’Clicked\’);

D. Set the Text\’s \’On boundary event\’ Event configuration option to: ${Text1=).setText(fClicked\’);

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

The first component of the Vehicle Details coach is a Text field with the label Search Vehicle in a coach view, which is configured to fire a boundary event. Which one of the events does the BPM application developer need to use so that the Vehicle List table filters to matching vehicle selected from Search Vehicle field?

A. Onload

B. Onclick

C. On input

D. Change the event handler and specify this.context.refreshView();

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

Which statement is true when exposing a BPM function as a web service to exterior systems?

A. All operations exposed in a web service are one-way operations.

B. All operations exposed in a web service are request-response operations.

C. Operations exposed in a web service can be both one-way operations or callback operations.

D. Operations exposed in a web service can be both one-way operations or request-response operations.

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

How can process applications be enabled to create, update, or download ECM documents?

A. Use an external ECM server instead of the internal IBM BPM document store.

B. Select \’Always use this connection information\’ properties of the ECM server definition.

C. Use the Document List or Document Viewer coach views to create, update, or download the documents.

D. Add the \’enable-document-authorization-security-service\’ configuration setting to the 100Custom.xml.

Correct Answer: B


Question 6:

What is a valid logging command to print log statements to the client-side browser?

A. print.log(`\’info”)

B. debug.log(“info\’\’)

C. client.log(`\’infon\’\’)

D. console.log(`\’info”)

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which statement is true regarding the Tab index configuration option?

A. It sequences each Tab dynamically for the Tab control.

B. It flags the control to display with the warning color.

C. It only works when the Coach is set to Responsive mode.

D. It sets the sequence index for the control on the form when the user presses their Tab1 keyboard button.

Correct Answer: A


Question 8:

Which JavaScript object would be used to invoke a REST call?

A. HTTPRest()

B. iBMRESTCall()

C. BPMRESTRequest()

D. ApacheRESTRequest()

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Which statement is true about working with system data toolkits?

A. The system data toolkit includes many predefined variable types.

B. Administrative access is required to edit the library items in a system data toolkit.

C. When a new process application is created, the system data toolkit needs to be added as a dependency.

D. Adding a dependency on the system data toolkit allows the creation of custom, localized dashboards with the reusable interface elements.

Correct Answer: C


Question 10:

For data mapping in nested client-side human services, what type of objects are passed by reference?

A. All object types

B. String type object

C. Boolean type object

D. Complex business objects

Correct Answer: D


Question 11:

What does a developer need to do to view the artifacts and their dependencies that are used across all toolkits in the IBM Process Center repository?

A. Get Administrative rights.

B. Use the Global scope option.

C. Use the POST /bpm/repo/projects REST API.

D. Ensure that the Process Centers are registered to each other and enabled for sharing.

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Which statement is true regarding having different error handling for different errors?

A. A finally block within a try/catch block can be used.

B. Only a single boundary events can be defined on one activity.

C. Multiple error boundary events can be defined on one activity.

D. A Decision activity type can be attached to handle different errors.

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

In IBM BPM, what needs to be done to use an external service in a Service Flow?

A. Use a Modify Task activity type to invoke an operation of the external service

B. Use a Service Task activity type to invoke an operation of the external service

C. Use a Decision activity type to invoke the rules of an external service

D. Use a Content Integration Task activity type to invoke an operation of the external service

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which logging command is used to print log statements to the system out logs?

A. log.wam(\’\’info”)

B. log.alert(“info”)

C. log.trace(“info”)

D. log.statement(\’\’infon)

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which team is eligible for being invited to collaborate with other users on a task?

A. Admin team

B. Support team

C. Experienced team

D. Task experts team

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

A technician needs to replace a server component with orange tabs/releases. Which set of paired steps should the technician take to complete this task?

A. Power off the server Apply anti-static procedures

B. Remove power cables Cold swap the component

C. Cold swap the component Apply anti-static procedures

D. Hot swap the component Apply anti-static procedures

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.sos.state.co.us/pubs/elections/VotingSystems/DVS-DemocracySuite/documentation/Dell_Poweredge_R630_Owner_Manual.pdf (84)


Question 2:

A technician creates two virtual disks and assigns a dedicated hot spare to each virtual disk. They also create a global hot spare. A drive fails on the second virtual disk. What is the result?

A. Dedicated hot spare for the virtual disk replaces the failed drive.

B. Global hot spare replaces the failed drive.

C. Copyback operation occurs between the failed drive and the dedicated hot spare.

D. Copyback operation occurs between the failed drive and the global hot spare.

Correct Answer: B

Refe https://www.dell.com/support/article/pk/en/pkbsd1/sln305775/dell-poweredge-how-to-assign-a-hard-drive-in-global-hot-spare-?lang=en


Question 3:

What can a technician do to ensure that no malicious code can be introduced into any of the servers through physical access?

A. Set USB 3.0 to disabled

B. Set Secure Boot Policy to enabled

C. Set User Accessible Ports to disabled

D. Set UEFI Variable Acces to disabled

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

A user has a fully configured PowerEdge R640 and an iSM installed on their Windows 2016 operating system. They now want to install OMSA to enable them to have alerts sent out in-Band to a management console. What does the user need to consider?

A. OMSA can be installed on the same operating system with ISM, provided both OMSA and iSM have the same firmware version revisions.

B. iSM must be uninstalled before OMSA is installed.

C. iSM must be installed before OMSA can be installed.

D. OMSA can be installed on the same operating system with iSM without restrictions.

Correct Answer: D


Question 5:

A server is equipped with 2 CPUs and 12x 8 GB DIMMs, for a total of 96 GB. The OS is not seeing all the memory. Which memory mode should be configured so that all memory is seen by the OS?

A. Mirroring

B. Advanced ECC

C. Optimizer

D. Sparing

Correct Answer: C

Reference https://www.dell.com/support/article/pk/en/pkbsd1/sln155709/memory-modes-in-dual-processor-11th-generation-poweredge-servers?lang=en#Sparing


Question 6:

A technician is creating a virtual disk in the DRAC (2x 4 TB NL-SAS in RAID 1) to install Windows 2016. They manually boot to the OS installation media without using the Lifecycle Controller OS Deployment wizard. Only the first 2048 GB on the virtual disk can be partitioned. How should the technician obtain access to the remaining 2 TB (approximately) of storage?

A. Delete the 4 TB virtual disk and create a virtual (boot) disk no longer than 2048 GB.

B. Upgrade to a newer version of the operating system.

C. Use the lifecycle Controller\’s OS Deployment Wizard to deploy the OS on this server.

D. Use F2 to go into the BIOS, change the BIOS boot mode to UEFI, and try again.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

A technician plugs in a server that has dual power supply units. After powering on the system, they notice that the power supply status indicators blink green then turn off. What troubleshooting steps should the technician take to resolve this issue?

A. Set the power supply redundancy option to `No Redundancy\’

B. Check that the PSUs are not connected to a 240VAC source

C. Update the iDRAC firmware to enable control of new PSU features

D. Check that the PSUs are the same efficiency, feature set, health status, and supported voltage

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://qrl.dell.com/Files/en-us/Html/Manuals/R630/Power indicator codes=GUID-FBD2281B-1608-4FF8-9AFE-4E33BB6FF810=1=en-us=.html


Question 8:

Eight new servers have arrived at a datacenter. All use static IP addresses for iDRAC. The technician needs to enable these servers to contact the DHCP server on the network to obtain new IP addresses. What method can the technician use to quickly switch to DHCP?

A. Reboot each server to enable DHCP default settings

B. Boot into CTRL S and change iDRAC settings to DHCP

C. Use the LCD panel to input a new IP address

D. Log in to the iDRAC and enable DHCP

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.dell.com/support/article/pk/en/pkbsd1/sln306877/dell-poweredge-how-to-configure-the-idrac-9-and-the-lifecycle-controller?lang=en


Question 9:

A technician is setting up a previously used server. Upon power up, the PERC alerts them to the presence of a foreign configuration. In the iDRAC storage section, the technician checks Foreign View. The foreign array configuration is the same as the configuration needed for the new project. What is a recommended way to prepare the disks for the new project?

A. Edit the foreign configuration and set it to Ready

B. Import the foreign configuration and perform a full initialization

C. Format the foreign configuration and clear the controller configuration

D. Access the Ctrl R utility, clear the foreign configuration and set up array as needed

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.dell.com/community/PowerEdge-HDD-SCSI-RAID/PERC-H310-active-drives-are-listed-in-foreign-config/td-p/6126153


Question 10:

A technician is working on an operational PowerEdge R640 server that cannot be rebooted. Observing that all drives are hot-swappable devices, the technician decides to remove a drive that has been giving intermittent errors. After the single drive is removed the operating system crashes. What could have caused the operating system to crash?

A. System Lockdown mode was enabled, which does not allow any component to be hot-swapped

B. iDRAC was not configured for hot-swappable components

C. Drive was part of a RAID 0 virtual disk

D. PERC was configured to allow a single drive removal

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

A technician receives an email alert that one of the drives on a server has failed. Upon replacing the bad drive, they receive a second email alert that the same drive has failed. The technician installs the replacement drive in another server and it works correctly. What is a valid troubleshooting step for this issue?

A. Replace the PERC

B. Recreate the RAID array

C. Perform a full initialization on the replacement drive

D. Verify that the drive firmware is up to date

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

A system administrator needs to install OpenManage Server Administrator on 200 servers. What is the quickest way to meet this requirement?

A. Use the Lifecycle Controller to install OpenManage Server Administrator on each server.

B. Install OME and push OpenManage Server Administrator to all 200 servers.

C. Use Microsoft utilities to automate the deployment of OpenManage Server Administrator.

D. Download OpenManage Server Administrator from Dell.com and install on each server.

Correct Answer: D

Reference https://www.dell.com/support/home/pk/en/pkbsd1/drivers/driversdetails?driverid=r89613


Question 13:

A new Dell customer is ordering servers that have very specific firmware dependencies. Any replaced parts of the same type must match the replaced original part identically. The procedure must be as simple as possible with minimal risk. What action should a technician take to accomplish this goal?

A. Enable the Match Firmware of Replaced Part setting in the system BIOS

B. Install and configure a repository manager

C. Configure servers to access the remote firmware repository

D. Enable the Collect System Inventory On Restart (CSIOR) attribute

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

A technician needs to update the iDRAC license on a PowerEdge R740 server from Express to Enterprise. The server has the following components:

2x CPUs 384 GB RAM 6x 1 TB drives 1x PSU

The server is powered down but connected to active AC. The user wants it to stay powered down and not connect to any networks. No errors are presently displayed.

How can the technician upgrade the license?

A. The license cannot be upgraded because the user will not allow the server to be powered on

B. The license cannot be upgraded on a single PSU system

C. Power on the server then connect to the iDRAC and upgrade iDRAC license before powering the server down

D. Connect to the iDRAC GUI and upgrade the iDRAC license while the server is powered down.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

A user has a server with only one processor installed with 6x 32 GB RDIMMs. A technician was asked to install a second processor. After installing the second processor, the technician finds that the second processor is not operational. What should be done to make the second processor operational?

A. The second CPU socket needs to be enabled

B. Logical processing must be enabled in the BIOS

C. The iDRAC license needs to be at either Express or Enterprise levels

D. The RDIMMs need to be moved so that there are three RDIMMs on each CPU

Correct Answer: D