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Question 1:

A company has deployed an e-commerce web application in a new AWS account. An Amazon RDS for MySQL Multi-AZ DB instance is part of this deployment with a database-1.xxxxxxxxxxxx.us-east1.rds.amazonaws.com endpoint listening on port 3306. The company\’s Database Specialist is able to log in to MySQL and run queries from the bastion host using these details.

When users try to utilize the application hosted in the AWS account, they are presented with a generic error message. The application servers are logging a “could not connect to server: Connection times out” error message to Amazon CloudWatch Logs.

What is the cause of this error?

A. The user name and password the application is using are incorrect.

B. The security group assigned to the application servers does not have the necessary rules to allow inbound connections from the DB instance.

C. The security group assigned to the DB instance does not have the necessary rules to allow inbound connections from the application servers.

D. The user name and password are correct, but the user is not authorized to use the DB instance.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://forums.aws.amazon.com/thread.jspa?threadID=129700


Question 2:

An AWS CloudFormation stack that included an Amazon RDS DB instance was accidentally deleted and recent data was lost. A Database Specialist needs to add RDS settings to the CloudFormation template to reduce the chance of accidental instance data loss in the future.

Which settings will meet this requirement? (Choose three.)

A. Set DeletionProtection to True

B. Set MultiAZ to True

C. Set TerminationProtection to True

D. Set DeleteAutomatedBackups to False

E. Set DeletionPolicy to Delete

F. Set DeletionPolicy to Retain

Correct Answer: ACF

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/AWSCloudFormation/latest/UserGuide/aws-attributedeletionpolicy.html https://aws.amazon.com/premiumsupport/knowledge-center/cloudformation-accidental-updates/


Question 3:

A Database Specialist is troubleshooting an application connection failure on an Amazon Aurora DB cluster with multiple Aurora Replicas that had been running with no issues for the past 2 months. The connection failure lasted for 5 minutes and corrected itself after that. The Database Specialist reviewed the Amazon RDS events and determined a failover event occurred at that time. The failover process took around 15 seconds to complete.

What is the MOST likely cause of the 5-minute connection outage?

A. After a database crash, Aurora needed to replay the redo log from the last database checkpoint

B. The client-side application is caching the DNS data and its TTL is set too high

C. After failover, the Aurora DB cluster needs time to warm up before accepting client connections

D. There were no active Aurora Replicas in the Aurora DB cluster

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

A company is concerned about the cost of a large-scale, transactional application using Amazon DynamoDB that only needs to store data for 2 days before it is deleted. In looking at the tables, a Database Specialist notices that much of the data is months old, and goes back to when the application was first deployed.

What can the Database Specialist do to reduce the overall cost?

A. Create a new attribute in each table to track the expiration time and create an AWS Glue transformation to delete entries more than 2 days old.

B. Create a new attribute in each table to track the expiration time and enable DynamoDB Streams on each table.

C. Create a new attribute in each table to track the expiration time and enable time to live (TTL) on each table.

D. Create an Amazon CloudWatch Events event to export the data to Amazon S3 daily using AWS Data Pipeline and then truncate the Amazon DynamoDB table.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

A company has an on-premises system that tracks various database operations that occur over the lifetime of a database, including database shutdown, deletion, creation, and backup.

The company recently moved two databases to Amazon RDS and is looking at a solution that would satisfy these requirements. The data could be used by other systems within the company.

Which solution will meet these requirements with minimal effort?

A. Create an Amazon Cloudwatch Events rule with the operations that need to be tracked on Amazon RDS. Create an AWS Lambda function to act on these rules and write the output to the tracking systems.

B. Create an AWS Lambda function to trigger on AWS CloudTrail API calls. Filter on specific RDS API calls and write the output to the tracking systems.

C. Create RDS event subscriptions. Have the tracking systems subscribe to specific RDS event system notifications.

D. Write RDS logs to Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose. Create an AWS Lambda function to act on these rules and write the output to the tracking systems.

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

A clothing company uses a custom ecommerce application and a PostgreSQL database to sell clothes to thousands of users from multiple countries. The company is migrating its application and database from its on-premises data center to the AWS Cloud. The company has selected Amazon EC2 for the application and Amazon RDS for PostgreSQL for the database. The company requires database passwords to be changed every 60 days. A Database Specialist needs to ensure that the credentials used by the web application to connect to the database are managed securely.

Which approach should the Database Specialist take to securely manage the database credentials?

A. Store the credentials in a text file in an Amazon S3 bucket. Restrict permissions on the bucket to the IAM role associated with the instance profile only. Modify the application to download the text file and retrieve the credentials on start up. Update the text file every 60 days.

B. Configure IAM database authentication for the application to connect to the database. Create an IAM user and map it to a separate database user for each ecommerce user. Require users to update their passwords every 60 days.

C. Store the credentials in AWS Secrets Manager. Restrict permissions on the secret to only the IAM role associated with the instance profile. Modify the application to retrieve the credentials from Secrets Manager on start up. Configure the rotation interval to 60 days.

D. Store the credentials in an encrypted text file in the application AMI. Use AWS KMS to store the key for decrypting the text file. Modify the application to decrypt the text file and retrieve the credentials on start up. Update the text file and publish a new AMI every 60 days.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

A financial services company is developing a shared data service that supports different applications from throughout the company. A Database Specialist designed a solution to leverage Amazon ElastiCache for Redis with cluster mode enabled to enhance performance and scalability. The cluster is configured to listen on port 6379.

Which combination of steps should the Database Specialist take to secure the cache data and protect it from unauthorized access? (Choose three.)

A. Enable in-transit and at-rest encryption on the ElastiCache cluster.

B. Ensure that Amazon CloudWatch metrics are configured in the ElastiCache cluster.

C. Ensure the security group for the ElastiCache cluster allows all inbound traffic from itself and inbound traffic on TCP port 6379 from trusted clients only.

D. Create an IAM policy to allow the application service roles to access all ElastiCache API actions.

E. Ensure the security group for the ElastiCache clients authorize inbound TCP port 6379 and port 22 traffic from the trusted ElastiCache cluster\’s security group.

F. Ensure the cluster is created with the auth-token parameter and that the parameter is used in all subsequent commands.

Correct Answer: ABE

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/getting-started/tutorials/setting-up-a-redis-cluster-with-amazonelasticache/


Question 8:

A Database Specialist is migrating a 2 TB Amazon RDS for Oracle DB instance to an RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance using AWS DMS. The source RDS Oracle DB instance is in a VPC in the us-east-1 Region. The target RDS for PostgreSQL DB instance is in a VPC in the use-west-2 Region.

Where should the AWS DMS replication instance be placed for the MOST optimal performance?

A. In the same Region and VPC of the source DB instance

B. In the same Region and VPC as the target DB instance

C. In the same VPC and Availability Zone as the target DB instance

D. In the same VPC and Availability Zone as the source DB instance

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

The Development team recently executed a database script containing several data definition language (DDL) and data manipulation language (DML) statements on an Amazon Aurora MySQL DB cluster. The release accidentally deleted thousands of rows from an important table and broke some application functionality. This was discovered 4 hours after the release. Upon investigation, a Database Specialist tracked the issue to a DELETE command in the script with an incorrect WHERE clause filtering the wrong set of rows. The Aurora DB cluster has Backtrack enabled with an 8-hour backtrack window. The Database Administrator also took a manual snapshot of the DB cluster before the release started. The database needs to be returned to the correct state as quickly as possible to resume full application functionality. Data loss must be minimal. How can the Database Specialist accomplish this?

A. Quickly rewind the DB cluster to a point in time before the release using Backtrack.

B. Perform a point-in-time recovery (PITR) of the DB cluster to a time before the release and copy the deleted rows from the restored database to the original database.

C. Restore the DB cluster using the manual backup snapshot created before the release and change the application configuration settings to point to the new DB cluster.

D. Create a clone of the DB cluster with Backtrack enabled. Rewind the cloned cluster to a point in time before the release. Copy deleted rows from the clone to the original database.

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

A company is load testing its three-tier production web application deployed with an AWS CloudFormation template on AWS. The Application team is making changes to deploy additional Amazon EC2 and AWS Lambda resources to expand the load testing capacity. A Database Specialist wants to ensure that the changes made by the Application team will not change the Amazon RDS database resources already deployed. Which combination of steps would allow the Database Specialist to accomplish this? (Choose two.)

A. Review the stack drift before modifying the template

B. Create and review a change set before applying it

C. Export the database resources as stack outputs

D. Define the database resources in a nested stack

E. Set a stack policy for the database resources

Correct Answer: AD


Question 11:

A manufacturing company\’s website uses an Amazon Aurora PostgreSQL DB cluster.

Which configurations will result in the LEAST application downtime during a failover? (Choose three.)

A. Use the provided read and write Aurora endpoints to establish a connection to the Aurora DB cluster.

B. Create an Amazon CloudWatch alert triggering a restore in another Availability Zone when the primary Aurora DB cluster is unreachable.

C. Edit and enable Aurora DB cluster cache management in parameter groups.

D. Set TCP keepalive parameters to a high value.

E. Set JDBC connection string timeout variables to a low value.

F. Set Java DNS caching timeouts to a high value.

Correct Answer: ABC


Question 12:

A company is hosting critical business data in an Amazon Redshift cluster. Due to the sensitive nature of the data, the cluster is encrypted at rest using AWS KMS. As a part of disaster recovery requirements, the company needs to copy the Amazon Redshift snapshots to another Region.

Which steps should be taken in the AWS Management Console to meet the disaster recovery requirements?

A. Create a new KMS customer master key in the source Region. Switch to the destination Region, enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region snapshots, and use the KMS key of the source Region.

B. Create a new IAM role with access to the KMS key. Enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region replication using the new IAM role, and use the KMS key of the source Region.

C. Enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region snapshots in the source Region, and create a snapshot copy grant and use a KMS key in the destination Region.

D. Create a new KMS customer master key in the destination Region and create a new IAM role with access to the new KMS key. Enable Amazon Redshift cross-Region replication in the source Region and use the KMS key of the destination Region.

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.aws.amazon.com/redshift/latest/mgmt/working-with-snapshots.html


Question 13:

A company is running a finance application on an Amazon RDS for MySQL DB instance. The application is

governed by multiple financial regulatory agencies. The RDS DB instance is set up with security groups to

allow access to certain Amazon EC2 servers only. AWS KMS is used for encryption at rest.

Which step will provide additional security?

A. Set up NACLs that allow the entire EC2 subnet to access the DB instance

B. Disable the master user account

C. Set up a security group that blocks SSH to the DB instance

D. Set up RDS to use SSL for data in transit

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://aws.amazon.com/blogs/database/applying-best-practices-for-securing-sensitive-data-inamazon-rds/


Question 14:

A company needs a data warehouse solution that keeps data in a consistent, highly structured format. The company requires fast responses for end-user queries when looking at data from the current year, and users must have access to the full 15-year dataset, when needed. This solution also needs to handle a fluctuating number incoming queries. Storage costs for the 100 TB of data must be kept low.

Which solution meets these requirements?

A. Leverage an Amazon Redshift data warehouse solution using a dense storage instance type while keeping all the data on local Amazon Redshift storage. Provision enough instances to support high demand.

B. Leverage an Amazon Redshift data warehouse solution using a dense storage instance to store the most recent data. Keep historical data on Amazon S3 and access it using the Amazon Redshift Spectrum layer. Provision enough instances to support high demand.

C. Leverage an Amazon Redshift data warehouse solution using a dense storage instance to store the most recent data. Keep historical data on Amazon S3 and access it using the Amazon Redshift Spectrum layer. Enable Amazon Redshift Concurrency Scaling.

D. Leverage an Amazon Redshift data warehouse solution using a dense storage instance to store the most recent data. Keep historical data on Amazon S3 and access it using the Amazon Redshift Spectrum layer. Leverage Amazon Redshift elastic resize.

Correct Answer: C


Question 15:

A gaming company wants to deploy a game in multiple Regions. The company plans to save local high scores in Amazon DynamoDB tables in each Region. A Database Specialist needs to design a solution to automate the deployment of the database with identical configurations in additional Regions, as needed. The solution should also automate configuration changes across all Regions.

Which solution would meet these requirements and deploy the DynamoDB tables?

A. Create an AWS CLI command to deploy the DynamoDB table to all the Regions and save it for future deployments.

B. Create an AWS CloudFormation template and deploy the template to all the Regions.

C. Create an AWS CloudFormation template and use a stack set to deploy the template to all the Regions.

D. Create DynamoDB tables using the AWS Management Console in all the Regions and create a stepby-step guide for future deployments.

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Which statement is true regarding the creation of nested plans using the Oracle Resource Manager?

A. Only one nested subplan is allowed per parent plan

B. The plans can be nested up to four levels.

C. Nested plans only control resources used by recursive SQL

D. Nested plans control only the degree of parallelism and I/O requests

E. Each nested plan gets a proportion of the CPU resources assigned to its parent group.

Correct Answer: E


Question 2:

You executed the following command In Recovery Manager {RMAN):

RMAN>REPORTNEEDBACKUPdays 3;

What is the output of this command?

A. a list of files that require a backup within three days

B. a list of files requiring more than 3 days of archive logs to apply

C. a list of files that RMAN recommends be backed up only once in every three days, based on low volatility

D. a list of files for which a backup has already been performed in the last three days and which is required tobe backed up again based on the high number of transactions performed on them

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

To enable faster incremental backups, you enabled block change tracking for the database. Which two statements are true about the block change tracking file? (Choose two.)

A. Multiple change tracking files can be created for a database.

B. The change tracking file must be created after the first level 0 backup.

C. RMAN does not support backup and recovery of the change tracking file.

D. The database clears the change tracking file and starts tracking changes again, after whole database restore and recovery operations.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 4:

Tablespaces of certain types or in certain states can be renamed. Which four of these situations permit renaming a tablespace?

A. the SYSTEM tablespace

B. the default permanent tablespace for the non-SYSTEM users

C. an offline tablespace

D. a temporary tablespace

E. a read-only tablespace

F. an undo tablespace

Correct Answer: BDEF


Question 5:

In your database, the flash recovery area (FRA) is configured as the default for RMAN backups. You executed the following commands to configure the settings in RMAN:

Which statement is true about the outcome?

A. Only one channel is allocated and the backup is created in the flash recovery area

B. Only one channel is allocated and the backup is created in the destination specified for channel

C. Two channels are allocated and backup sets are created in the destinations specified for channels 1 and 2

D. Three channels are allocated and backup sets are created in the destinations specified for channels 1, 2, and FRA

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

Identify two options that Oracle recommends while configuring the backup and recovery environment for your recovery catalog. (Choose two.)

A. configuring control file autobackup to be ON

B. backing up data filed only and not the archived redo log files

C. running the recovery catalog database in NOARCHIVELOG mode.

D. setting the retention policy to a REDUNDANCY value greater than 1

E. backing up the recovery catalog to the same disk as that of the target database

Correct Answer: AD


Question 7:

You want to create a consumer group, GROUP1, and you execute the following command in the command-line interface:

SQL> EXEC DBMS_RESOURCE_MANAGER.CREATE_CONSUMER_GROUP (CONSUMER_GROUP

=>\’group1\’, COMMENT => \’New Group\’); This command errors out displaying the following message:

ERROR at line 1:

ORA-29371: pending area is not active

ORA-06512: at “SYS.DBMS_RMIN”, line 115

ORA-06512: at “SYS.DBMS_RESOURCE_MANAGER”, line 108 ORA-06512: at line 1

What action would you take to overcome this error?

A. activate the Pending Area before creating the consumer group

B. create the Pending Area before creating the consumer group

C. increase the size of the database buffer cache to accommodate the Pending Area

D. increase the size of the shared pool to accommodate the Pending Area

E. increase the size of the large pool to accommodate the Pending Area

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

Which of the following is typical of software licensing in the cloud?

A. Per socket

B. Perpetual

C. Subscription-based

D. Site-based

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

A server administrator wants to run a performance monitor for optimal system utilization. Which of the following metrics can the administrator use for monitoring? (Choose two.)

A. Memory

B. Page file

C. Services

D. Application

E. CPU

F. Heartbeat

Correct Answer: AE


Question 3:

After configuring IP networking on a newly commissioned server, a server administrator installs a straight- through network cable from the patch panel to the switch. The administrator then returns to the server to test network connectivity using the ping command. The partial output of the ping and ipconfig commands are displayed below:

The administrator returns to the switch and notices an amber link light on the port where the server is connected. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for the lack of network connectivity?

A. Network port security

B. An improper VLAN configuration

C. A misconfigured DHCP server

D. A misconfigured NIC on the server

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A user cannot save large files to a directory on a Linux server that was accepting smaller files a few minutes ago. Which of the following commands should a technician use to identify the issue?

A. pvdisplay

B. mount

C. df -h

D. fdisk -l

Correct Answer: C


Question 5:

Following a recent power outage, a server in the datacenter has been constantly going offline and losing its configuration. Users have been experiencing access issues while using the application on the server. The server technician notices the data and time are incorrect when the server is online. All other servers are working. Which of the following would MOST likely cause this issue? (Choose two.)

A. The server has a faulty power supply

B. The server has a CMOS battery failure

C. The server requires OS updates

D. The server has a malfunctioning LED panel

E. The servers do not have NTP configured

F. The time synchronization service is disabled on the servers

Correct Answer: CF


Question 6:

A company has implemented a requirement to encrypt all the hard drives on its servers as part of a data loss prevention strategy. Which of the following should the company also perform as a data loss prevention method?

A. Encrypt all network traffic

B. Implement MFA on all the servers with encrypted data

C. Block the servers from using an encrypted USB

D. Implement port security on the switches

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

A systems administrator is setting up a server on a LAN that uses an address space that follows the RFC 1918 standard. Which of the following IP addresses should the administrator use to be in compliance with the standard?

A. 11.251.196.241

B. 171.245.198.241

C. 172.16.19.241

D. 193.168.145.241

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://whatis.techtarget.com/definition/RFC-1918


Question 8:

An administrator needs to perform bare-metal maintenance on a server in a remote datacenter. Which of the following should the administrator use to access the server\’s console?

A. IP KVM

B. VNC

C. A crash cart

D. RDP

E. SSH

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://phoenixnap.com/blog/what-is-bare-metal-server


Question 9:

A technician needs to provide a VM with high availability. Which of the following actions should the technician take to complete this task as efficiently as possible?

A. Take a snapshot of the original VM

B. Clone the original VM

C. Convert the original VM to use dynamic disks

D. Perform a P2V of the original VM

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://forsenergy.com/en-us/virtual_help/html/1325909c-5878-4674-a152-3fd3d4e8e3c6.htm


Question 10:

A server administrator receives a report that Ann, a new user, is unable to save a file to her home directory on a server. The administrator checks Ann\’s home directory permissions and discovers the following:

dr-xr-xr– /home/Ann

Which of the following commands should the administrator use to resolve the issue without granting unnecessary permissions?

A. chmod 777 /home/Ann

B. chmod 666 /home/Ann

C. chmod 711 /home/Ann

D. chmod 754 /home/Ann

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://linuxize.com/post/what-does-chmod-777-mean/


Question 11:

Which of the following documents would be useful when trying to restore IT infrastructure operations after a non-planned interruption?

A. Service-level agreement

B. Disaster recovery plan

C. Business impact analysis

D. Business continuity plan

Correct Answer: C


Question 12:

A systems administrator is setting up a new server that will be used as a DHCP server. The administrator installs the OS but is then unable to log on using Active Directory credentials. The administrator logs on using the local administrator account and verifies the server has the correct IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway. The administrator then gets on another server and can ping the new server. Which of the following is causing the issue?

A. Port 443 is not open on the firewall

B. The server is experiencing a downstream failure

C. The local hosts file is blank

D. The server is not joined to the domain

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

A systems administrator is preparing to install two servers in a single rack. The administrator is concerned that having both servers in one rack will increase the chance of power issues due to the increased load. Which of the following should the administrator implement FIRST to address the issue?

A. Separate circuits

B. An uninterruptible power supply

C. Increased PDU capacity

D. Redundant power supplies

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

Which of the following is a method that is used to prevent motor vehicles from getting too close to building entrances and exits?

A. Bollards

B. Reflective glass

C. Security guards

D. Security cameras

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bollard


Question 15:

A technician is installing a variety of servers in a rack. Which of the following is the BEST course of action for the technician to take while loading the rack?

A. Alternate the direction of the airflow

B. Install the heaviest server at the bottom of the rack

C. Place a UPS at the top of the rack

D. Leave 1U of space between each server

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

In an AMX page, you want to hide/show a button based on the mobile device having a camera. Which is a valid EL expression to test for the camera?

A.

B.

C.

D.

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

You are investigating a mobile application that uses SOAP web services that invoke queries on a database to get the data to the mobile UI. The customer complains about the application being too slow.

Which of the following changes would not improve the performance of the application?

A. Introduce middle-tier data caching for data that does not change frequently.

B. Switch the services from SOAP protocol to REST protocol.

C. Reduce the number of fields returned from the service so that only the needed fields are returned.

D. Add a layer that fetches the data on the middle tier into a Java class and then expose that class asa SOAP service.

Correct Answer: A


Question 3:

Which four statements about service enrichment are true?

A. It may include transforming the schema of the input and/or output messages.

B. A single service call to Oracle Service Bus can invoke one or more calls to enterprise systems.

C. OracleService Bus can examine the contents of the input payload and headers to make decisions about which enterprise systems are called and in what order.

D. Service enrichment has nothing to do with security.

E. It depends directly on the implementation language chosen at run time.

F. It can only be performed in the Oracle ServiceBus.

Correct Answer: ABEF


Question 4:

Correct Answer: D

https://docs.oracle.com/middleware/maf210/mobile/develop/maf-web- services.htm


Question 5:

Which four options can be used to authenticate a MAF application user?

A. Facebook

B. SSO

C. HTTP Basic

D. Google

E. Mobile social

F. O-Auth

Correct Answer: BCEF

Mobile applications may require that user credentials be verified against a remote login server(such as the Oracle Access Manager Identity Server used by Oracle ADF Fusion web applications) or a local credential store that resides on the user\’s device. To support local and remote connectivity modes, MAF supports these authentication protocols:

HTTP Basic Mobile-Social OAuth Web SSO By default, authentication of the mobile application user is against the remote login server regardless of the authentication protocol chosen at design time. Developers may configure the application, in the case of Oracle Access Management Mobile and Social (OAMMS) and basic authentication to enable local authentication. However, initially, because the local credential store is not populated with credentials, login to access secured application features requires authentication against a remote login server. Successful remote authentication enables the subsequent use of the local credential store, which houses the user\’s login credentials from the authentication server on the device. Thus, after the user is authenticated against the server within the same application session (that is, within the lifecycle of the application execution), MAF stores this authentication context locally, allowing it to be used for subsequent authentication attempts. In this case, MAF does not contact the server if the local authentication context is sufficient to authenticate the user. Although a connection to the authentication server is required for the initial authentication, continual access to this server is not required for applications using local authentication.


Question 6:

A service developer is creating a service that will be used by mobile clients. Which piece of advice should the developer consider while designing it?

A. Design for next generation interfaces to ensure that their services will not need to change in the future.

B. Carefully choose the implementation language and the monitoring capabilities.

C. Consider the interface types, payloads types, and security approaches which are easily consumed by mobile devices.

D. Create services that are arcane in nature to enhance the security of the services.

Correct Answer: C


Question 7:

When developing a MAF application for service technicians, you determine that the mobile technician will need to extensively describe the condition of the item he or she is servicing, including the area that is broken and any other pertinent details.

How would you implement this in an MAF application to avoid excessive typing?

A. Use a remote URL page to enable the technician to specify the description in a browser- based page.

B. Use the camera integration feature to allow the technician to take a photo of the serviced item.

C. Use an input text area to allow for multiple lines of text.

D. Use the voice recognition integration feature to allow the technician to enter details by voice.

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

The EL expression#{deviceScope.hardware.networkStatus}returns a dynamic value based on the mobile device\’s current network connectivity. Which is an invalid use of the network status?

A. If the value returned is 3g, warn the user that downloading data may take significant time.

B. Disable entry to a feature if it requires network access and the current network status isnone.

C. Stop the user from invoking the phone device service, which relies on a 2G, 3G, or 4G connection if the network status returnswifi.

D. Call an external web service to refresh data if a connection is available; otherwise, use a local cached copy of the data.

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

For a MAF application to register anURL scheme to be invoked by other applications on the device, it must define two things. First, it defines the URL scheme in themaf- application.xmlfile.

What is the second thing the application must do to be invoked and handle the event when the application is initiated by the URL scheme?

A. In themaf-application.xmlfile, define an event listener with an associated Java class to respond.

B. Within the application\’s LifeCycleListenerImpl.start() method, register an EventListener to fire and respond to the event.

C. Include an URL scheme Cordova plugin to respond to the event on each platform.

D. In themaf-application.xmlfile, configure the `Push-Notification\’ device access privilege.

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

You are building a new MAF application and the design documentation specifies the following requirements about the application logs:

1. Log entries by the MAF framework must be kept at a minimum. 2.Log entries generated by your own business logic must be as detailed as possible for compliance purpose. Thelogging.propertiesfile for your application currently looks like this: .handlers=com.sun.util.logging.ConsoleHandler .formatter=com.sun.util.logging.SimpleFormatter oracle.adfmf.util.logging.ConsoleHandler.level=SEVERE oracle.adfmf.util.logging.ConsoleHandler.formatter=oracle.adfmf.util.logging.PatternFormatt er oracle.adfmf.util.logging.PatternFormatter.pattern=[%LEVEL% – %LOGGER% – %CLASS% – %METHOD%]%MESSAGE% oracle.adfmf.application.useParentHandlers=false oracle.adfmf.application.handlers=oracle.adfmf.util.logging.ConsoleHandler oracle.adfmf.application.level=INFO oracle.adfmf.framework.useParentHandlers=false oracle.adfmf.framework.handlers=oracle.adfmf.util.logging.ConsoleHandler oracle.adfmf.framework.level=FINE Which two actions would you perform to fulfill the requirements?

A. Use loggers from thecom.sun.loggingpackage in you code.

B. Setoracle.adfmf.application.leveltoFULLin thelogging.propertiesfile.

C. Set.handlerstooracle.adfmf.util.logging.handlers.SQLiteHandlerin thelogging.propertiesfile to store the logs in a database since this is required by regulations.

D. Setoracle.adfmf.application.leveltoFINESTin thelogging.propertiesfile.

E. Setoracle.adfmf.framework.leveltoSEVEREin thelogging.propertiesfile.

Correct Answer: CD


Question 11:

Which two statements about using HTTPS to secure access to a mobile service are true?

A. HTTPS is impervious to attacks.

B. HTTPS secures only the transport to the service.

C. HTTPS can be used for data redaction.

D. HTTPS alone is insufficient for services that require user-level authentication.

Correct Answer: BD


Question 12:

Whatare two uses of MAF fragments?

A. They can be used to standardize the layout of multiple AMX pages in your application.

B. They allow you to embed bounded task flows as regions in your AMX pages.

C. They are used by theamx:panelPagecomponent to provide standard locations for UI developers to drop child components in the page header, footer, and primary or secondary menu bar actions.

D. They allow you to inject remote web pages into your AMX page similar to an iFrame.

E. They can be used to standardize the layout of portions of your AMX pages in your application.

Correct Answer: CE


Question 13:

Which three statements are true about MAF data controls?

A. A data control is an adapter that exposes a simpler, unified development API for MAF application developers to declaratively and programmatically access data services.

B. Data controls expose data service structures in the data controls panel. The information exposed includes attributes, collections, and public methods.

C. Data controls in MAF exist for remote SOAP and REST services only and handle all of the XML to Java object marshalling and unmarshalling.

D. Data controls are configured in one or moreDataControls.dcxfiles.

E. MAF is restricted to ten data controls per mobile application.

Correct Answer: BCD


Question 14:

You used the REST service data control wizard to build a data control from a remote REST service endpoint.

How do you change the endpoint while you move the MAF application from testing to production?

A. Edit theconnections.xmlfile stored in the application\’s.adf/Meta-Infdirectory.

B. Edit theDataControls.dcxdata control definition file stored in the project within which the REST data control is created.

C. Edit theadfm.xmlfile in theApplicationController/adfmsrc/Meta-INFdirectory.

D. Edit thecacertsfile in the application\’s/resources/securitydirectory.

Correct Answer: A

After creating a web service data control, you can modify the end point of the URI. This is useful in such cases as when you migrate an application feature from a test to production environment. You modify the end point by editing the connections.xml file


Question 15:

Which step would you perform to declaratively bind data collections and attributes, saved in a local SQLite database, to AMX user interface components?

A. Configure the SQLite database data control and use the data controls panel to drag and drop data collections and attributes onto the AMX view.

B. Use a JavaBean to wrap calls to SQLite database and create a JavaBean DataControlfrom it, that then appears in the data controls panel.

C. Use the REST service adapter to query data from SQLite in JSON format.

D. Create a TopLink persistence layer to query and update the database. The AMX user interface components bind to the EJB session facade.

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.oracle.com/middleware/maf211/mobile/develop-oepe/oepe-maf- data-controls.htm#OEPMF1615


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Question 1:

Which four application services are delivered by VMware Horizon 7? (Choose four.)

A. Packaged apps with VMware ThinApp

B. Virtualized apps from Citrix

C. SaaS apps

D. Helpdesk ticketing system

E. RDS hosted apps

F. Anti-virus services

Correct Answer: ABCE

Reference: https://www.vmware.com/techpapers/2014/application-delivery-options-in-vmware-horizon-10430.html


Question 2:

Which feature of VMware vSphere will automate the process of migrating virtual machines to fewer hosts during times of low workloads?

A. FT

B. EVC

C. DPM

D. HA

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/techpaper/Distributed-Power-Management-vSphere.pdf (p. 3)


Question 3:

Which two statements are true for vRealize Business for Cloud? (Choose two.)

A. It provides costing for non-vSphere workload by directly integrating with them.

B. It provides public cloud costing, consumption analysis, and pricing.

C. It collects performance data through the agents that are deployed in the cloud workloads.

D. It provides costing for native services hosted on AWS and Azure cloud.

E. It provides Automatic private cloud metering, costing, and pricing.

Correct Answer: BE

Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-business-for-cloud.html


Question 4:

VMware offers vRealize Suite in editions that provide different functionality at different points, making it easy to license VMware vRealize Suite to meet a customer\’s specific requirements and use cases. Which three are vRealize Suite editions? (Choose three.)

A. Enterprise Plus

B. Foundations

C. Advanced

D. Enterprise

E. Professional

F. Standard

Correct Answer: CDF

Reference: https://www.vmware.com/products/vrealize-suite.html


Question 5:

Which two are use cases for a VMware vSphere deployment. (Choose two.)

A. A company wants higher availability in their data centers.

B. A company wants to run all applications directly on bare metal servers.

C. A company wants a mixed workload of public and private cloud.

D. A company wants to run all workloads in the public cloud.

E. A company wants to run all workloads on-premises.

Correct Answer: AE


Question 6:

How does VMware Cross-Cloud Architecture address incompatibility between clouds?

A. VMware Cross-Cloud Architecture does not address incompatibility between clouds.

B. By using network virtualization technology across clouds.

C. By replacing public clouds.

D. By replacing private clouds.

Correct Answer: B


Question 7:

Which two statements are true about the VMware Horizon Suite platform? (Choose two.)

A. VMware Horizon Suite connects end users to their data and applications on any device.

B. VMware Horizon Suite connects end users to their data and applications only from a single centralized device.

C. VMware Horizon Suite is a secure platform for workforce mobility.

D. Connecting end users using Horizon Suite is user-friendly but compromises on security and control.

Correct Answer: AC


Question 8:

Which technology enables the Just-in-time Delivery feature of Horizon 7which ensures rapid deployment of full-featured, personalized digital workspaces?

A. Instant Clones

B. ThinApp

C. Blast Extreme

D. Smart Policies

Correct Answer: A

Rapidly deploy full-featured, personalized digital workspaces leveraging JMP technologies, which include Instant Clones, App Volumes and User Environment Management Reference https://www.vmware.com/products/horizon.html


Question 9:

What are two key cloud challenges faces by customers? (Choose two.)

A. Availability of organizational budget

B. Cross-cloud management

C. Availability of administrative personnel

D. Connectivity and applying security across clouds

E. Choice of services offered by different cloud providers is limited.

Correct Answer: BD

Reference: https://itq.nl/vmware-going-hybrid-cloud-cross-cloud-architecture/


Question 10:

Which feature of VMware vSphere will guarantee performance of virtual machine storage traffic during congestion?

A. Virtual Volumes

B. Storage DRS

C. Storage I/O control

D. VMware vSAN

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/techpaper/network-ioc-vsphere6-performance-evaluation-white-paper.pdf


Question 11:

Which feature in VMware vSphere ensures zero downtime and prevents data loss when a physical server fails?

A. vSphere Data Protection

B. High Availability

C. Fault Tolerance

D. vSphere Replication

Correct Answer: C

In the event of server failures, VMware vSphere Fault Tolerance (vSphere FT) provides continuous availability for applications with as many as four virtual CPUs. It does so by creating a live shadow instance of a VM that is always up to date with the primary VM. In the event of a hardware outage, vSphere FT automatically triggers failover, ensuring zero downtime and preventing data loss. Like vSphere HA, it protects against hardware failure but completely eliminates downtime with instantaneous cutover and recovery. After failover, vSphere FT automatically creates a new, secondary VM to deliver continuous protection for the application Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/techpaper/vmware-vcenter-server-6-0-availability-guide-white-paper.pdf


Question 12:

What is VMware\’s network virtualization solution for the Software Defined Data Center (SDDC)?

A. VMware NSX for vSphere

B. vSphere Opaque Network

C. vSphere Distributed Switch (vDS)

D. vSphere Standard Switch (vSS)

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://www.vmware.com/solutions/software-defined-datacenter/in-depth.html


Question 13:

What are the core components of VMware Cloud Foundation?

A. VMware, vSphere, vSAN and NSX

B. Database services, storage hardware, and network switches

C. VMware vRealize Suite, Workspace One, and Horizon

D. Routers, switches, and gateway appliances

Correct Answer: A

The core components of VMware Cloud Foundation are VMware vSphere, Virtual SAN and NSX. VMware Cloud Foundation also comes with VMware SDDC Manager that automates the entire system lifecycle and simplifies software operations. In addition, it can be further integrated with VMware vRealize?Suite, VMware Horizon?and VMware Integrated OpenStack.

Reference: https://www.vmware.com/content/dam/digitalmarketing/vmware/en/pdf/datasheet/products/ vmware-cloud-foundation-datasheet.pdf


Question 14:

Which two benefits are delivered through VMware Software Defined Data Center (SDDC)? (Choose two.)

A. Complex architecture

B. IT driven policies

C. Comprehensive management

D. Flexible cloud delivery

E. Increased administrative cost

Correct Answer: BC

Reference: https://www.vmware.com/solutions/software-defined-datacenter.html


Question 15:

Which three choices are key objectives or deliverables for proposing a solution? (Choose three.)

A. Design Requirements Workbook

B. Backup Strategy

C. Operating Procedures

D. Implementation Guide

E. Validation Procedures

Correct Answer: ACD


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Question 1:

A researcher wants to move a Legend to another area on a chart. How can the Legend be moved to the new area?

A. Right-click and drag.

B. Hold the Ctrl key and drag.

C. Change the Legend Properties to “Free”.

D. Click the Edit button within Legend Items.

Correct Answer: C


Question 2:

Review the following image:

Using an analysis function, which of the following will allow an analyst to find linked entities with a distinct attribute in a specific direction?

A. Search Bar

B. Find Clusters C. Visual Search

D. Find Matching Entities

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

The investigator wants to perform a search for “FARADAY” in Analyst\’s Notebook. Which wildcard search will return the desired results?

A. F?Y

B. F*AY

C. F*day

D. FA???

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Review the following image from the UK intelligence sources:

Which of the following analysis tools will highlight the shortest string of connections between the two highlighted entities?

A. Find Path

B. Find Linked

C. Highlight Tool

D. List Linked Items

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Compared to other parts of the network, which entity has the HIGHEST degree centrality?

A. Jennifer REILAND

B. Heather JACKSON

C. Abigail ROSS

D. Edward INGRAM

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Once Analyst\’s Notebook has identified possible matching entities, how are duplicates removed?

A. Manually change the identity of one entity to match the other entity

B. Select the matching entities and press Ctrl D simultaneously

C. Select each of the matching entities and click the Link button.

D. Select each of the matching entities and click the Merge button.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

An intelligence analyst has been tasked with creating an entity to represent a bank account. Account Holder: Jane Smith Account Number: 987654321 Routing Number (also known as a Sort Code, Transit Number or IBAN): 121000358 Account Type: Checking Using the following information, which option contains the MOST UNIQUE identity for the bank account?

A. Jane Smith\’s Account

B. 121000358987654321

C. 121000358

D. Checking

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Leadership requires the creation of a timeline chart showing the order in which key activities take place. What should be used to add the activity to the chart?

A. Theme Line Entity Type

B. Event Frame Entity Type

C. Theme Line Entity Representation

D. Event Frame Entity Representation

Correct Answer: D


Question 9:

Review the following Visual Search image:

Based on the image above,

which two of the following would NOT be included in the results?

A. Exhibit A

B. Exhibit B

C. Exhibit C

D. Exhibit D

E. Exhibit E

Correct Answer: CE


Question 10:

When adding a link to a directed connection and the new link has the same direction as any existing link, what happens to the connection multiplicity?

A. The connection remains Directed.

B. The connection is changed to Single.

C. The connection is changed to Multiple.

D. The connection multiplicity is changed to a link with corners.

Correct Answer: C


Question 11:

Which of the following statements about cards is NOT TRUE?

A. Data within the cards can be displayed on a chart item.

B. Data within the cards can be used within Visual Search.

C. Description field of data can be displayed within List Items.

D. The same cards can be duplicated between entities and links.

Correct Answer: A


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Question 1:

Irin is a newly joined penetration tester for XYZ Ltd. While joining, as a part of her training, she was

instructed about various legal policies and information securities acts by her trainer. During the training,

she was informed about a specific information security act related to the conducts and activities like it is

illegal to perform DoS attacks on any websites or applications, it is illegal to supply and own hacking tools,

it is illegal to access unauthorized computer material, etc.

To which type of information security act does the above conducts and activities best suit?

A. Police and Justice Act 2006

B. Data Protection Act 1998

C. USA Patriot Act 2001

D. Human Rights Act 1998

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

Adam is an IT administrator for Syncan Ltd. He is designated to perform various IT tasks like setting up new user accounts, managing backup/restores, security authentications and passwords, etc. Whilst performing his tasks, he was asked to employ the latest and most secure authentication protocol to encrypt the passwords of users that are stored in the Microsoft Windows OS-based systems. Which of the following authentication protocols should Adam employ in order to achieve the objective?

A. LANMAN

B. Kerberos

C. NTLM

D. NTLMv2

Correct Answer: C


Question 3:

Michael, a Licensed Penetration Tester, wants to create an exact replica of an original website, so he can

browse and spend more time analyzing it.

Which of the following tools will Michael use to perform this task?

A. VisualRoute

B. NetInspector

C. BlackWidow

D. Zaproxy

Correct Answer: C


Question 4:

A hacker initiates so many invalid requests to a cloud network host that the host uses all its resources responding to invalid requests and ignores the legitimate requests. Identify the type of attack

A. Denial of Service (DoS) attacks

B. Side Channel attacks

C. Man-in-the-middle cryptographic attacks

D. Authentication attacks

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Thomas is an attacker and he skimmed through the HTML source code of an online shopping website for the presence of any vulnerabilities that he can exploit. He already knows that when a user makes any selection of items in the online shopping webpage, the selection is typically stored as form field values and sent to the application as an HTTP request (GET or POST) after clicking the Submit button. He also knows that some fields related to the selected items are modifiable by the user (like quantity, color, etc.) and some are not (like price). While skimming through the HTML code, he identified that the price field values of the items are present in the HTML code. He modified the price field values of certain items from $200 to $2 in the HTML code and submitted the request successfully to the application. Identify the type of attack performed by Thomas on the online shopping website?

A. Session poisoning attack

B. Hidden field manipulation attack

C. HTML embedding attack

D. XML external entity attack

Correct Answer: C


Question 6:

Steven is performing a wireless network audit. As part of the engagement, he is trying to crack a WPAPSK key. Steven has captured enough packets to run aircrack-ng and discover the key, but aircrack-ng did

not yield any result, as there were no authentication packets in the capture.

Which of the following commands should Steven use to generate authentication packets?

A. aireplay-ng –deauth 11 -a AA:BB:CC:DD:EE:FF

B. airmon-ng start eth0

C. airodump-ng –write capture eth0

D. aircrack-ng.exe -a 2 -w capture.cap

Correct Answer: A


Question 7:

Sam was asked to conduct penetration tests on one of the client\’s internal networks. As part of the testing

process, Sam performed enumeration to gain information about computers belonging to a domain, list of

shares on the individual hosts in the network, policies and passwords.

Identify the enumeration technique.

A. NTP Enumeration

B. NetBIOS Enumeration

C. DNS Enumeration

D. SMTP Enumeration

Correct Answer: B


Question 8:

Jason is working on a pen testing assignment. He is sending customized ICMP packets to a host in the

target network. However, the ping requests to the target failed with “ICMP Time Exceeded Type = 11” error

messages.

What can Jason do to overcome this error?

A. Set a Fragment Offset

B. Increase the Window size in the packets

C. Increase the TTL value in the packets

D. Increase the ICMP header length

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

Joseph, a penetration tester, was hired by Xsecurity Services. Joseph was asked to perform a pen test on

a client\’s network. He was not provided with any information about the client organization except the

company name.

Identify the type of testing Joseph is going to perform for the client organization?

A. White-box Penetration Testing

B. Black-box Penetration Testing

C. Announced Testing

D. Grey-box Penetration Testing

Correct Answer: B


Question 10:

An organization deployed Microsoft Azure cloud services for running their business activities. They appointed Jamie, a security analyst for performing cloud penetration testing. Microsoft prohibits certain tests to be carried out on their platform. Which of the following penetration testing activities Jamie cannot perform on the Microsoft Azure cloud service?

A. Post scanning

B. Denial-of-Service

C. Log monitoring

D. Load testing

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

Sandra, a wireless network auditor, discovered her client is using WEP. To prove the point that the WEP

encryption is very weak, she wants to decrypt some WEP packets. She successfully captured the WEP

data packets, but could not reach the content as the data is encrypted.

Which of the following will help Sandra decrypt the data packets without knowing the key?

A. Fragmentation Attack

B. Chopchop Attack

C. ARP Poisoning Attack

D. Packet injection Attack

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

Richard is working on a web app pen testing assignment for one of his clients. After preliminary

information, gathering and vulnerability scanning Richard runs the SQLMAP tool to extract the database

information.

Which of the following commands will give Richard an output as shown in the screenshot?

A. sqlmap –url http://quennhotel.com/about.aspx?name=1 –D queenhotel –tables

B. sqlmap –url http://quennhotel.com/about.aspx?name=1 –dbs

C. sqlmap –url http://quennhotel.com/about.aspx?name=1 –D queenhotel –T –columns

D. sqlmap –url http://quennhotel.com/about.aspx?name=1 –database queenhotel –tables

Correct Answer: A


Question 13:

Identify the PRGA from the following screenshot: A. replay_src-0124-161120.cap

B. fragment-0124-161129.xor

C. 0505 933f af2f 740e

D. 0842 0201 000f b5ab cd9d 0014 6c7e 4080

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

James is an attacker who wants to attack XYZ Inc. He has performed reconnaissance over all the publicly available resources of the company and identified the official company website http://xyz.com. He scanned all the pages of the company website to find for any potential vulnerabilities to exploit. Finally, in the user account login page of the company\’s website, he found a user login form which consists of several fields that accepts user inputs like username and password. He also found than any non-validated query that is requested can be directly communicated to the active directory and enable unauthorized users to obtain direct access to the databases. Since James knew an employee named Jason from XYZ Inc., he enters a valid username “jason” and injects “jason)(and))” in the username field. In the password field, James enters “blah” and clicks Submit button. Since the complete URL string entered by James becomes “(and (USER=jason)(and))(PASS=blah)),” only the first filter is processed by the Microsoft Active Directory, that is, the query “(and(USER=jason)(and))” is processed. Since this query always stands true, James successfully logs into the user account without a valid password of Jason. In the above scenario, identify the type of attack performed by James?

A. LDAP injection attack

B. HTML embedding attack

C. Shell injection attack

D. File injection attack

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

An organization has deployed a web application that uses encoding technique before transmitting the data over the Internet. This encoding technique helps the organization to hide the confidential data such as user credentials, email attachments, etc. when in transit. This encoding technique takes 3 bytes of binary data and divides it into four chunks of 6 bits. Each chunk is further encoded into respective printable character. Identify the encoding technique employed by the organization?

A. Unicode encoding

B. Base64 encoding

C. URL encoding

D. HTMS encoding

Correct Answer: B


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Question 1:

What is a packaged PaaS Solution?

A. Pivotal Cloud Foundry

B. Google App Engine

C. Microsoft Azure

D. Apache MESOS

Correct Answer: A


Question 2:

As a cloud architect you are working with an organization to choose between a DIY or packaged PaaS Solution.

What is a selection criterion that applies to DIY?

A. Has a higher cost of licensing and support

B. Is a more stable platform

C. Has built-in governance policies

D. Supports automated configuration

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

An organization wants to provide its developers the ability to deploy VMs. These VMs have software and libraries installed that are used to develop applications. Each VM will be configured with the same IP address and will be able to download application code from a central server. What will be included in the design to support these requirements?

A. VXLANs and an OS firewall

B. VXLANs and virtual firewall appliances

C. VLANs and virtual IDS appliances

D. VSANs and virtual IDS appliances

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

As a cloud architect, you are designing a CI solution to ensure that you isolate specific workloads for security. What should you design for?

A. High Availability

B. Fault Tolerance

C. Multi-tenancy

D. Redundancy

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

A cloud architect is designing a packaged PaaS Solution for an organization. One of the primary concerns of the organization is application portability. What consideration focuses on portability?

A. A technology must be chosen that enables portable PaaS architectures

B. Monitoring at the application level must capture and evaluate key metrics

C. A subscription-by-time cost model must be chosen to manage costs

D. A secure connector must be chosen to ensure secure API access to data

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

You have the following requirements for a CMP solution: Lower acquisition costs of software Control over deployment of software release cycles Option to have paid support What type of CMP solution should you recommend?

A. Proprietary

B. Software defined

C. Open-source

D. Vendor supported open-source

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

As a cloud architect designing a DIY PaaS Solution, you have concluded that using containers to support the target application is the best choice. What consideration supports that decision?

A. An application will run on multiple platforms with minor modification

B. The abstraction of the physical hardware limits vulnerability

C. Multiple operating systems can be supported in a single container

D. The container supports the required software stack

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

You are designing the CMP structure. Where should you define the pods?

A. Fault domain

B. Private cloud VM

C. Availability zone

D. Public cloud VM

Correct Answer: B


Question 9:

An organization wants to deploy a CMP solution in a private cloud. What requirements influence the sizing of the underlying cloud management infrastructure?

A. Size of the service portal and catalog

B. CMP version and functions it provides

C. Type of services and cost of each service

D. High availability and performance

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

You are creating a cloud infrastructure design for an organization. You learn that, for compliance reasons, the organization needs to maintain a separate set of infrastructures for certain deployed services. Which part of the design will be impacted by this requirement?

A. Number of compute pools

B. Number of service catalogs

C. Over-commitment ratio

D. Service catalog sizing

Correct Answer: B


Question 11:

You are analyzing the performance data to avoid oversizing of a CI solution. What date and time frame should you use?

A. Average production time over multiple days

B. Peak production times over multiple days

C. Average production time over a single day

D. Peak production times over a single day

Correct Answer: D


Question 12:

You are designing a cloud to support an Oracle OLTP environment. What is the recommended read/write ratio to use in this environment?

A. 2 to 1

B. 3 to 1

C. 4 to 1

D. 5 to 1

Correct Answer: D


Question 13:

A cloud architect is tasked with designing a backup using the Remote with Cloud Gateway Deployment Model. What is a design consideration?

A. Replication settings should be driven by organizational requirements around RPO

B. Backup servers are required to communicate with cloud storage interfaces

C. Larger initial backup sets may take long times to complete delivery

D. Gateways must contain backup software to offload backup server tasks

Correct Answer: D


Question 14:

In a cloud design, an architect has defined a separate trust zone for host management. The hosts will be running open source hypervisors. What should be included in the design deliverables to support this separate trust zone?

A. Federated authentication source and preferred QoS network settings

B. Isolated management network and a federated super-user account

C. Separate PKI and encrypted CMP portal access

D. Separate PKI and a separate authentication source

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

What is the benefit of Hot Spare disks?

A. Enable efficient use of SSDs and NL SAS drive technologies

B. Provide space-optimal data redundancy against multiple drive failures

C. Handle any disk failure by distributing data over multiple drives

D. Replace failed drives by taking the identity of the failed drive

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Drag and Drop

Match the data access type in a SAN fabric to the correct description.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:


Question 2:

Which functionality available in an HPE 3 Par StoreServ 8400 system that is not available in an HPE 3par Storesrve 7200?

A. Data at Rest Encryption

B. Persistent Checksum end-to-end data integrity (correct)

C. Adaptive optimization and dynamic Optimization

D. Online import license

Correct Answer: B


Question 3:

Which storage principle would benefits of customer who has several departments in their organization with different storage needs?

A. Autonomic Management

B. Federated storage

C. Scale out storage

D. Multi-tenancy

Correct Answer: D


Question 4:

A customer with restricted budget has an existing HPE 3PAR storeserver 8200 using 10kfast class and near line drives because of the implementation of new application .the workload has shifted to be read intensive therefore ,they want to increase the read I/O performance What should they add to their environment?

A. A tier with 15k fast class 600 GB drive for new CPG, configure AO policy to advantage of new resources

B. Two 400 GB SSD drives and enable adaptive flash cache (page 173) eed to check

C. A tier with 15k fast class drive and implement thin provisioned deduplicated virtual volumes

D. A tier of SSD and implement thin provisioned virtual volume

Correct Answer: B


Question 5:

Which management interface uses four basic commands (Create ,read, update ad delete )to enable administrators to define ad radically simply management processes?

A. Rest API

B. WMI

C. SMI-S

D. WEBEM

Correct Answer: A


Question 6:

What can move data directly from a snapshot to backup storage independent of backup server software?

A. SSMC

B. Virtual Lock

C. CLI

D. Express Protect

Correct Answer: D

The Express Protect feature offers data protection by facilitating Express Protect of snapshots from HPE 3PAR StoreServ to HPE StoreOnce.


Question 7:

A large organization is experiencing exponential data growth of object storage due to recent mergers and acquisition .They need an on-premise solution to optimize cost at petabyte scale Which components should you recommend for a software-defined solution ?(select two)

A. HPE Appolo 4510 server

B. HPE Complete -Scalability RING

C. HPE Synergy 660 Gen10 compute modules

D. HPE complete -CTERA

E. HPE 3PAR Storeserv 9450c

Correct Answer: AB


Question 8:

Which SAN topology offers the highest centralized data access performance?

A. Meshed

B. Cascaded

C. Core-Edge

D. Ring

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A customer need to implement a new SAN fabric for their growing environment .The new SAN should provide a high performance and port-efficient network with many-to-many connectivity .Because of changing requirement and the possible acquisition of another company in the near future. The customer cannot predit the I/O traffic pattern within the SAN .The customer also concerned about availability. Which type of SAN topology should you recommend?

A. Core-edge fabric

B. Single switch fabric

C. Cascaded fabric

D. Meshed fabric

Correct Answer: D


Question 10:

Which storage tool in the storage assessment foundry provide data protection analysis?

A. Ninja protected (318)

B. NinjaCrawler

C. Ninja Thin

D. Ninja Stars

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

A customer is a cloud service provider with infrastructure powered by HPE 3PAR Storeserv 9000.The customer is concern about their ability to ensure the quality of service and protect their tenants from unpredictable bursts of I/O from other tenants. What should you recommended to your customer ?

A. Use priority optimization to enable service level for workloads

B. Use virtual domain to automatically set multi-tenant policies

C. Use dynamic optimization to automatically manage quality of service

D. Use adaptive optimization to optimize service level automatically

Correct Answer: A


Question 12:

A customer has an existing configuration consisting of first class and nearline SAS drive in an 8000 SFF enclosure. They add two SFF 8000enclosure that are fully populated with nearline drives to an existing HPE 3Par storeserv 8400 array. What should the customer do to optimize their storage configuration?

A. Defrag the CPG and run align drive on their system

B. Run tunesys and on the array (275)

C. Enable space reclamation

D. Create new CPG for the newly installed drivers

Correct Answer: B


Question 13:

Which storage protocol is supported by virtual connect Flex-10?

A. FCoE

B. FC

C. ISCSI

D. FCIP

Correct Answer: C


Question 14:

A customer need a new storage system for visual desktop infrastructure environment to reduce the time required to provision new desktop. Which HPE solution should you recommended to fulfill this customers requirements?

A. Snapclones on HPE MSA 2040

B. SmartClone on HPE store virtual VSA(54)

C. Storage pool on HPE store Easy

D. Virtual Copy on HPE 3Par storeServ

Correct Answer: B


Question 15:

A customer needs to be manually map out preferred paths within a multi-switch fabric, based on application ,priority ,and topology, while allowing failover to a non-preferred path if the preferred path fails, Which B-series FC switch functionality should be used to provide this?

A. Quality of services

B. Enhanced group management

C. Frame filtering

D. Traffic isolation Zones

Correct Answer: D


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Question 1:

Select the method for updating table metadata that provides for the most control over updating features and can be run in batch.

A. Update Metadata option in Data Library Manager in SAS Management Console.

B. Update Library Metadata task in SAS Enterprise Guide.

C. Update Metadata option in SAS Data Integration Studio.

D. METALIB procedure using SAS code.

Correct Answer: D


Question 2:

A host is using an LDAP provider as a back-end authentication mechanism. For this setup, how does the SAS server view the authentication?

A. integrated authentication

B. back-end authentication

C. internal authentication

D. host authentication

Correct Answer: D


Question 3:

Which statement is a disadvantage of pre-assigned libraries?

A. The server does not become available to the user until all pre-assigned libraries have been assigned.

B. Pre-assigned libraries must be identical across all SAS client applications.

C. Pre-assigned libraries must be assigned using the autoexec file.

D. The administrator cannot control which engine is used to access data in a pre-assigned library.

Correct Answer: B


Question 4:

Given the following authorization setup:

-Mary is a direct member of DeptA and DeptB

Library Sales2 has an ACT denial for DeptA.

Library Sales2 has an explicit grant for DeptB. Which statement is true?

A.

Mary can see Library Sales2.

B.

Mary cannot see Library Sales2.

C.

Mary can see Library Sales2 for data associated withDeptB only.

D.

Mary can see Library Sales2 for data flagged as PUBLIC only.

Correct Answer: A


Question 5:

Which statement regarding precedence principles for authorization is FALSE?

A. Settings on an item have priority over settings on the item\’s parent.

B. If identity precedence and the type of setting do not resolve a conflict, the outcome is a denial.

C. Explicit settings have priority over ACT settings.

D. A direct member of multiple groups cannot have conflicting settings.

Correct Answer: D


Question 6:

A platform administrator needs to register OLAP cubes. What permission levels are required for this task?

A. CM for the target folder andWMMfor the OLAP schema.

B. WM for the OLAP schema and RMLE for the target folder.

C. WM for the target folder and WMM for the OLAP schema.

D. WM for the OLAP schema and WMM for the target folder.

Correct Answer: D


Question 7:

Which permissions are found on all metadata item types?

A. RM WM RMM RW Administer

B. RM WM RW Administer

C. RM WM Administer

D. RM WM

Correct Answer: D


Question 8:

A platform administrator needs to associate a library with an application server.

What permission level on the application server will the platform administrator need for this task?

A. CM

B. RMLE

C. WM

D. WMM

Correct Answer: C


Question 9:

A platform administrator wants to provide SAS Administrators and service identities with exclusive read access to metadata. Which permission levels should the platform administrator assign?

A. RM for PUBLIC, SAS Administrators, and SAS System Services

B. RM and R for PUBLIC, SAS Administrators, and SAS System Services

C. RM for PUBLIC, and R for SAS Administrators and SAS System Services

D. R for PUBLIC, and RM for SAS Administrators and SAS System Services

Correct Answer: A


Question 10:

An identity hierarchy specifies a list of identities and the order of precedence of those identities. Which listing of identities is ranked from highest priority to lowest priority?

A. User, direct group, indirect group, SASUSERS, PUBLIC

B. User, SASUSERS, PUBLIC,directgroup, indirect group

C. SASUSERS, PUBLIC, User, direct group, indirect group

D. direct group, indirect group, User, PUBLIC, SASUSERS

Correct Answer: A


Question 11:

A platform administrator wants to physically segregate the physical storage for metadata in a single environment. What should the platform administrator create?

A. additional foundation repositories

B. additional custom repositories

C. additional project repositories

D. additional repository libraries

Correct Answer: B


Question 12:

If a server or spawner is failing to start, what would be the most appropriate first step in troubleshooting the cause of the failure?

A. Run the SAS Deployment Manager to reconfigure the servers.

B. Modify the SAS Server configuration files.

C. Copy the command line used to invoke the server and issue it directly in the operating system, noting any errors or information generated.

D. Use SAS Management Console to modify the server\’s configuration.

Correct Answer: C


Question 13:

Metadata repositories are a collection of files in a physical folder. In what format are the files stored?

A. SAS data sets

B. SAS metadata sets

C. XML

D. SGML

Correct Answer: A


Question 14:

By default, the SASMeta application server context:

A. can only be accessed by unrestricted users.

B. is a backup for theSASApp application server context.

C. only holds the metadata server definition.

D. holds the metadata server definition and a definition for a workspace server and DATA step batch server used for administrative functions.

Correct Answer: D


Question 15:

Which role is not pre-defined?

A. Enterprise Guide: Unrestricted

B. Enterprise Guide: Advanced

C. Enterprise Guide: Programming

D. Enterprise Guide: OLAP

Correct Answer: A