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070-489 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to configure filtering for the Product page.
Which filtering option should you use?
A. products/pages/products.aspx?productID=*&.productCategory=*
B. products.aspx;productID;productCategory; lucernepublishing.com
C. products; productID; productCategory; lucernepublishing.com
D. products/pages/products.aspx?*
E. productID;productCategory
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
You create a custom Visual Web Part. You deploy the solution package to the farm by using Windows PowerShell. When you try to add the custom Visual Web Part to a SharePoint site, an error message displays that includes a correlation ID.
You need to determine the cause of the error.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Run the Get-SPLogEvent Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
B. Run the Get-SPDiagnosticConfig Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
C. Run the Get-SPHealthAnalysisRule Windows PowerShell cmdlet.
D. View the Service Calls tab on the Developer Dashboard.
E. View the Unified Logging Service (ULS) tab on the Developer Dashboard.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 3
You need to implement caching in your code.
Which caching option should you use?
A. Object Cache
B. Distributed Cache
C. Windows Server AppFabric Cache
D. ASP.NET cache
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
You need to resolve the image loading issue.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Set the size of the site collection object cache to at least 100 MB.
B. Enable the binary large object (BLOB) cache on each front-end web server.
C. Activate the Content Organizer site feature.
D. Enable authenticated cache profiles for the site output cache.
E. Enable publishing features for the site collection.
F. Set the default device channel to the active channel.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 5
You need to raise the visibility of the sites.
What should you do?
A. Enable the Reports and Data Search feature for the site collection.
B. Create a custom timer job that generates the SiteMap.xml file in the root directory of the web application.
C. Add a Script Editor Web Part to the landing page of the publishing site. In the web part, enter the location of the SiteMap.xml file.
D. In Internet Information Services (IIS), enable the SiteMap ISAPI filter for the web application.
E. Enable the Search Engine Sitemap Site Collection feature for the site collection.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 6
You need to implement connection management for catalog connections.
Which method should you use? 070-489 dumps (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Public void UpdateCatalogConnection(CatalogConnectionSettingscatalogInfo)
B. Public void OnPublishCatalog(string catalogPath)
C. Public void DeleteCatalogConnection(string catalogPath)
D. Public void SetCatalogConnection(string catalogPath, boot disconnect)
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 7
You need to ensure that the data synchronization does not affect the end user experience on the intranet.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
070-489 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
You need to implement logging.
Which items should you implement? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SPDiagnosticsServiceBase.WriteEvent
B. Microsoft.SharePoint.Diagnostics.ULSLogEntry
C. SPUser.Sid
D. PortalLog.LogString
E. SPAlertTemplate
F. SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 9
You need to retrieve the required performance counters.
What should you do?
070-489 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
You need to implement the social maintenance tool.
How should you complete the relevant code? 70-489 dumps (To answer, select the appropriate option from each dropdown list in the answer area.)
070-489 dumps
Hot Area:
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 11
You need to notify Windows phone users about the new Windows phone app.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 12
You need to configure the external content type to search for research papers.
Which indexing connector should you use?
A. .NET Type Connector
B. WCF Service Connector
C. Custom Connector
D. SQL Server Connector
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You need to ensure that users can upload pictures.
Which code segment should you insert at line MP57?
070-489 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 14
You need to create the external content type to support the data model.
In the Return Parameter Configuration dialog box, in the properties section, which options should you select? (To answer, select the appropriate setting or settings in the answer area.)
Hot Area:
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 15
You need to add code to line MP22 to create the custom profile property.
How should you complete the relevant code? 70-489 dumps (To answer, drag the appropriate code segments to the correct locations in the answer area. Each code segment may be used once or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.)
Select and Place:
070-489 dumps
Correct Answer:
070-489 dumps
QUESTION 16
You need to ensure that employees can change their display name.
Which object model should you use?
A. Use the server-side object model.
B. Use a Representational State Transfer (REST) based service.
C. Use the JavaScript object model.
D. Use the .Net client-side object model.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
You need to search for research papers that contain media files.
What should you do? {Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the Windows Media Service.
B. Use Remote BLOB storage.
C. Add an Association operation from the ResearchPapers.ID field to the TreyResearch external content type.
D. Create a SQL Server-based external content type.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 18
You need to configure the Content Enrichment web service to index content from the AbstractIndexer service.
What should you do?
A. Set the value of the OutputProperties array to Trigger=True.
B. Set the value of the SendRawData property to false.
C. Configure conditions for the Trigger property.
D. Set the value of the InputProperties property to Trigger=True.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
You need to configure authentication to access the SQL data source during development.
Which authentication mechanism should you use?
A. Impersonated Windows Identity
B. Pass Through
C. Impersonated Custom Identity
D. Forms Based Authentication
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 20
You need to generate document identifiers for each new document that is uploaded to the site.
What should you do?
A. Create a derived class that inherits from the abstract class named Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.Documentld and then override all of the abstract methods.
B. Create a derived class that inherits from the abstract class named Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.DocumentldProvider and then override all of the virtual members.
C. Create a derived class that inherits from the Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.DocumentldProvider abstract class and then implement all abstract members.
D. Create a class to implement the Microsoft.Office.DocumentManagement.IDocumentld interface and then override all of the virtual members.
Correct Answer: B

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2019 AZ-400 exam study guide | AZ-400 study materials

Microsoft Azure certification exam preparation guide

Azure DevOps has a new Microsoft exam, exam AZ-400. There are definitely a lot of questions about this exam. Here are the answers for everyone.

Microsoft Azure certification

  • What is AZ-400?
  • Who should take this exam?
  • Is the AZ-400 difficult?
  • What are the prerequisites for the AZ-400 exam?
  • How do you participate in the az-400 test?
  • How to prepare for the AZ-400 exam?
  • Which books do you recommend?

What is AZ-400?

Microsoft Azure DevOps Solutions

Azure DevOps Solutions is one of the new role-based Azure certifications that validates the skills of azure DevOps professionals. AZ-400 exam study guide, the “AZ-400”, that makes a candidate a Microsoft Certified Azure DevOps Professional.

List of candidates who have obtained this certification:

Candidates for this exam are DevOps professionals.

Is the AZ-400 difficult?

It’s very difficult. Pass Microsoft Azure AZ-400 Exam Questions.Because it covers a lot of topics and requires a variety of skills.

What are the prerequisites for the AZ-400 exam?

  1. These professionals must be proficient with Agile practices in software development.
  2. Familiar with Azure management and azure development, and must be an expert in any of these areas. Ability to design and implement DevOps best practices using Azure technology to incorporate configuration management, versioning, compliance, build, release, testing, and infrastructure as code.
  3. DevOps professionals are able to combine processes, people, and technology to continuously deliver services and products that meet business objectives and user needs.

How do you participate in the az-400 test?

1.Born to Learn:

This is one of Microsoft’s official learning communities where you can find wonderful blog posts about Microsoft certifications and Microsoft AZ-400 Practice Test. When the AZ-400 beta exam is open for registration, you can get the test code you need from it.

2.Join Microsoft’s SME Profile Database:

Members of the group are eligible to receive e-mail messages that contain the AZ-400 beta test code. (Limited exam code in resources)You can access this program through Microsoft AZ-400 Pdf dumps Collaborate, and Microsoft Collaborate is an ideal resource for Microsoft partners.

How to prepare for the AZ-400 exam?

1.Visit Official Microsoft Page Only links to the AZ-400 exam can be accessed from this page.
2.Books Searching for genuine AZ-400 exam books that can help you a lot.
3.Azure White PapersYou can access a variety of white papers, e-books, and analytics reports from the Microsoft Azure page that can help you understand the most updates about azure development operations and related technologies.
4.Microsoft Documentation on Azure DevOps There will be comprehensive dashboards, public projects, and analytics solutions that can be accessed from this document.
5.TrainingFor most of the Azure certification exams, Microsoft provides on-demand instructor-led training in joint with its exam partners.
6. Forums & Study Groups You can find a learning group or forum on the az-400 page on the Microsoft page, which will help you learn.

Study material for exam AZ-400

Which books do you recommend?

1.Introducing Microsoft Team Foundation Server 2017
2.DevOps: 2 Manuscripts – DevOps Handbook and DevOps Adoption
3.The DevOps Handbook: How to Create World-Class Agility, Reliability, and Security in Technology Organizations
4.The Kubernetes Book: March 2019
5. DevOps: A Software Architect’s Perspective (SEI Series in Software Engineering)
6.Microservices, IoT and Azure: Leveraging DevOps and Microservice Architecture to deliver SaaS Solutions
7.Microservices, IoT and Azure: Leveraging DevOps and Microservice Architecture to deliver SaaS Solutions
8.NuGet 2 Essentials

The following can be very useful for this exam:

Design a DevOps Strategy

  • Recommend a migration and consolidation strategy for DevOps tools
  • Design and implement an Agile work management approach
  • Design a quality strategy
  • Design a secure development process
  • Design a tool integration strategy

Implement DevOps Development Processes

  • Design a version control strategy
  • Implement and integrate source control
  • Implement and manage build infrastructure
  • Implement code flow
  • Implement a mobile DevOps strategy
  • Managing application configuration and secrets

Implement Continuous Integration

  • Manage code quality and security policies
  • Implement a container build strategy
  • Implement a build strategy

Implement Continuous Delivery

  • Design a release strategy
  • Set up a release management workflow
  • Implement an appropriate deployment pattern

Implement Dependency Management

  • Design a dependency management strategy
  • Manage security and compliance

Implement Application Infrastructure

  • Design an infrastructure and configuration management strategy
  • Implement Infrastructure as Code
  • Manage Azure Kubernetes Service infrastructure
  • Implement infrastructure compliance and security

Implement infrastructure compliance and security

  • Recommend and design system feedback mechanisms
  • Implement process for routing system feedback to development teams
  • Optimize feedback mechanisms

Best Microsoft MCSA 70-410 Cert Exam Up To Date 2019 for Free

This exam is part of a series of three exams that test the skills and knowledge required to implement the core Windows Server 2012 infrastructure in an existing enterprise environment. 70-410 exam dumps.This exam verifies the ability of candidates to implement and configure Windows Server 2012 core services such as active directory and network services.You must pass to achieve the MCSA: Windows Server 2012 certification.

To help you pass 70-410 exam for the first time, be sure to make the most of these revision resources, practice tests, and tips.

How do I study for MCSA 70-410
exam 2019?

1. Use the Books Revision guides can help you build revisions in the way that best suits your learning style. 70-410 study guide.They focus on your learning and cover the content you will test on the exam.Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
2.Using Microsoft Virtual Academy Microsoft’s Virtual Academy is a learning resource directly from Microsoft that provides free online training and assistance to those interested in Microsoft technology. It contains a lot of videos, presentations, and other information, and it involves a lot of microsoft technology.
3.Join the Microsoft Forum You can bounce ideas off others, gain insight from those who’ve passed the exam and share knowledge and resources to help studying.The technet forum is very useful for guiding and providing information, whether you are taking an exam or just looking for help with a specific microsoft query. There are also a wide range of topics, which means that it is very likely that someone has already answered your question.
4.Take a 70-410 Practice test Practice testing is great, letting you get used to the form of exams, and prepare the types of questions and topics you will face, the real things you will face. This is also a good way to measure your level of learning and identify knowledge gaps.
5.Attend the MCSA 70-740 course You sit in the classroom without distraction, with other people who are focused on passing the same exams.You will also benefit from the teacher’s insight and monitoring of practical experience.
6.Download a trial version of Windows Server A good way to prepare for the exam is to learn the software yourself. Tailored to this experience around the 70-410 exam, you will be able to actually learn and modify, gain experience with certification and real use of the software.
7.Join the Microsoft Research Group The study Group is designed to help you share your learning skills and experience with others about the exam.
It’s also a great way to stay motivated.
8.Join the Windows Server Practice Lab If you’re inexperienced in using the software, you can gain hands-on experience without causing any problems you haven’t experienced yet.Go to the TechNet Virtual Lab, which contains 31 labs aligned with Windows Server 2012. There is a virtual lab dedicated to configuring and managing servers. The most important thing is that these resources are free.
9.Download the Microsoft Learning app There are many apps that can help you learn the exam.

How hard is the 70-410 exam?

In the Microsoft 70-740 exam, you can expect about 47 queries.The required pass score is about 700, which means it’s not an easy nut to crack. You only have 2 hours of exam time.

The success of the Microsoft 70-410 exam can be achieved with two cutting-edge technologies, including 70-410 PDF and hands-on exam testing for learning materials.Geekcert’s PDF documents are easy to carry in laptops or hard copies, so you can easily prepare no matter where you are.

How many Microsoft exams can you take?

Candidates may not attend specific examinations more than 5 times a year (1 2 months). This 12-month period begins on the day the fifth unsuccessful exam was re-tested.

What is an exam dump?

A braindump is a collection of actual exam questions and answers, provided by recent exam takers. These questions can be copied by the tester digitally or manually and then passed to a website that is sold to others.

MCSA and MCSE?

The main difference between MCSA and MCSE is that MCSA 70-410 dumps is an association or entry level certification, and MCSE is an expert certification.

What can I get from MCSA?

Employee’s most popular job with Microsoft Certified System Administrator (MCSA) certified median salary scale

Salary for Certification: Microsoft Certified Systems Administrator (MCSA)

Systems Administrator
Min : $47K
Max : $88K
Information Technology (IT) ManagerMin : $53K
Max : $117K
Senior Systems AdministratorMin : $59K
Max : $105K
Network Administrator Min : $43K
Max : $81K
Information Technology (IT) DirectorMin : $60K
Max : $133K
Senior Systems EngineerMin : $70K
Max : $126K
Systems Engineer (Computer Networking / IT)Min : $49K
Max : $104K

Change the concept of Microsoft Mcsa-windows Server 2012 Exam Preparation-70-410 Training Guide

Using a large number of books and notes, geekcert does not follow the old concept of Microsoft MCSA-Windows Server 2012 exam preparation, but introduces a short, important, and most relevant content that is very helpful in passing any certification to Microsoft MCSA-Windows Server 2012. examination.

For example, our March 2019 70-410 Updated Learning Guide covers a specific number of questions and answers in the entire syllabus.

My experience. Passed 70-410 first try!

I’ve seen so many people struggling with the 70-410 exam (70-410 exam how many questions)and I want to share my experience in the hope that it will help others prepare and get through.

I’ve been following these forums for a while, and I’ve been preparing for exams, and the advice and tips I’ve received have helped me make a lot of preparations.

Comptia A +,network + and Security + certification and Windows XP MCP certification.

I can’t tell you how important these are to my study. If you’re just starting to get certified, only starting with 70-410 dumps pdf and getting into trouble I strongly recommend using a +,network +security + before trying 70-410.

I have learned a lot about basic knowledge and basic concepts from these certifications, which are not covered in any of my research materials used in 70-410 exam dumps.

Study materials:

  1. Pluralsight Training Videos for Server 2012 R2 with Jason Helmick and Greg Shields
  2. Infinite Skills Training Videos for Server 2012 R2 with John Savill
  3. Microsoft Exam Ref for Server 2012 R2 by Craig Zacker
  4. 70-410 Practice Tests

Definitely study at least a little bit of the 711 content before sitting for the exam.

I took advice from others and looked at a little bit from 70-411, but in retrospect, I would have done more because on 710, there seemed to be more questions about 710 than I initially expected.

2019 Cisco 200-105 Dumps | Free 200-105 PDF …

200-105 ICND2

  • Exam Number: 200-105 ICND2
  • Associated Certifications:CCNA Routing and Switching
  • Duration:English, Japanese
  • Available Languages:Pearson VUE
  • Exam Policies:Review type of exam questions

Examination purpose

The exam tests candidates’ knowledge and skills related to LAN switching technology, IPv4 and IPv6 routing technologies, WAN technologies, infrastructure services and infrastructure maintenance.

Learning Resources

  1. Self-Study E-Learning
  2. Lecturer leads training
  3. Cisco Press

Prerequisites

It is recommended that you have the following skills and knowledge before attending this course:

  • Understand the basics of the network
  • Implementation of LAN
  • Enable Internet connectivity
  • Manage network devices
  • Securing Network Devices Implementing a basic IPv6 connection

Self-Study E-Learning

Free Cisco ICND 200-105 Latest & Updated Exam Questions for candidates to study and pass exams fast.Cisco 200-105 Free-Download question discussion:

CCNA Routing and Switching ICND2 200-105 Official Cert Guide, Academic

Lecturer leads training

Best-selling writers and expert lecturers share preparation tips and exam tips to help you identify weaknesses and improve your conceptual knowledge and practical skills.

The Geekcert 200-105 exam PDF and VCE Simulator is the latest certification exam preparation material.Geekcert’s latest 200-105 dumps will help 200-105 candidates pass the 200-105 exam in a short period of time and easily get Cisco certification. Choosing Geekcert as a 200-105 exam preparation assistance will be of great help in passing the Cisco 200-105 exam. Save time, energy and money.

Cisco Press

Trust Cisco Press’s best-selling official Certificate Guide series to help you learn, prepare and practice exam success.
They are built to provide assessment, review, and practice to help ensure that you are well prepared for the certification exam.

CCNA Routing and Switching ICND2 200-105 Official Cert Guide

Where can I get free Cisco 200-105 dumps?

  1. 200-105 Training Courses(There are several training courses to guide you, such as Interconnect Cisco network devices, part 2nd, or CCNA Routing and switching.)
  2. Interconnect Cisco Network equipment Part 2nd Test(Find some online 200-105 tests, Geekcert is great.which will increase your understanding of the CCNA Routing and Exchange exams.)
  3. Press Books (If you are a reader who likes to read, find some 200-105 news books that are suitable for interconnection Cisco Network devices 2nd part of the exam, such as the CCNA Routing and switching self-package training suite.)
  4. Ask Around (You can find it by asking someone with 200-105 exam experience. Get their advice before taking the Connected Cisco Networking Device Part 2 exam.ccna 200-105 pdf download. At the same time, you can join some online forums to provide you with a lot of ideas and suggestions for preparing CCNA routing and exchange exams.)

Pass your 200-105 exam and get Certified | Get 200-105 practice question answers 2019

Not only do we offer Cisco 200-105 practice tests, but we also provide you with proven ICND2 200-105 PDF questions and 200-105 PDF questions, and a clear understanding of how to try to interconnect Cisco Network Devices Part 2 (ICND2 v3.0) The exam is only the first attempt. Our Cisco Certified Professionals provide them with reliable CCNA routing and exchange 200-105 questions and answers.

Which Cisco platform can verify ACLs?

A. Cisco Prime Infrastructure
B. Cisco Wireless LAN Controller
C. Cisco APIC-EM
D. Cisco IOS-XE
Correct Answer: B

What is the alert message generated by SNMP agents called ?

A. TRAP
B. INFORM
C. GET
D. SET
Correct Answer: AB

Which command reveals the last method used to powercycle a router?

A. show reload
B. show boot
C. show running-config
D. show version
Correct Answer: D

While troubleshooting a GRE tunnel interface issue, show interface command output displays tunnel status up, but line
protocol is down. Which reason for this problem is the most likely?

A. The interface has been administratively shut down.
B. The route to the tunnel destination address is through the tunnel itself
C. The tunnel was just reset.
D. The next hop server is misconfigured
Correct Answer: B

Which encapsulation type is a Frame Relay encapsulation type that is supported by Cisco routers?

A. IETF
B. ANSI Annex D
C. Q9333-A Annex A
D. HDLC
Correct Answer: A

What information does a router running a link-state protocol use to build and maintain its topological database?

A. hello packets
B. SAP messages sent by other routers
C. LSAs from other routers
D. beacons received on point-to-point links
E. routing tables received from other link-state routers
F. TTL packets from designated routers
Correct Answer: AC

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The best and most updated latest Cisco Specialist latest 700-172 dumps online exam training resources in PDF format free download from geekcert. Useful latest Cisco Specialist 700-172 dumps pdf files and vce youtube demo update free shared. “FlexPod Sales” is the name of EXIN ITIL Cisco Specialist exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. New Cisco Specialist 700-172 dumps exam questions and answers download free try. 100% success and guarantee to pass Cisco 700-172 exam.

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700-172 dumps

New Cisco Specialist 700-172 Dumps Exam Real Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which three options are ways that customers benefit from the Cisco Technology Developer Program? (Choose three.)
A. Complete access to Cisco technologies and support resources
B. Faster, more successful deployments
C. Display the Cisco Compatible logo in association with their product offering
D. Exponentially expands the number and quality of rich, new business solutions
E. Opportunity to participate in Cisco research and development to develop next-generation Cisco Collaboration solutions
Correct Answer: C,D,E

QUESTION 2
In which deployment model does the service provider host dedicated equipment within its network operations center for a predictable monthly cost?
A. Managed customer-premises
B. Equipment services
C. Fully hosted unified communications
D. Advanced services mode
E. Hybrid or blended model
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which collaborative quoting platform gives an account manager the autonomy to make deals and quote decisions from within a single workspace?
A. Cisco Partner Central
B. Cisco Commerce Workspace
C. Cisco Unified Communications Business Advisor
D. Cisco Smart Business Roadmap
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which three options are important selling points for Cisco against Microsoft? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco better enables for mobility and deskless workers.
B. Cisco is well respected and is the only serious choice in collaboration.
C. Cisco Unified Presence can be integrated with Microsoft Office Communicator and Microsoft Lync.
D. Cisco has the maturity both in technology development and empirical deployment to scale to the requirements of large enterprises.
E. Cisco routers represent a competitive edge in remote offices.
F. Cisco provides unparalleled value to the managed service provider.
Correct Answer: A,C,D

QUESTION 5
Which option is an application in the Cisco IOS Software that provides call processing for as few as 15 and as many as 450 Cisco Unified IP Phones?
A. Cisco Unified Communications Manager Express
B. Cisco Unified Computing System
C. Cisco Integrated Media Engine
D. Cisco Emergency Responder
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which option aligns licensing to these three key role-based licenses: Power User, Information Work, and Officer Worker?
A. Right-to-Use Licenses
B. Cisco Unity Connection 9. 0 Licensing
C. Cisco Unified Workspace Licensing
D. Device License Units
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which three statements about Cisco Unified Communications Manager are true? 700-172 dumps (Choose three.)
A. It supports the full range of collaboration services only on Cisco devices
B. It supports the full range of collaboration services on Cisco and third-party devices.
C. It is used only to support voice routing and calling
D. It replaces the analog technology of PBX with a centralized IP-based communications infrastructure.
E. It is at the center of the Cisco collaboration architecture.
F. It combines the analog technology of PBX with a centralized IP-based communications infrastructure.
Correct Answer: B,D,E

QUESTION 8
You are discussing Cisco Collaboration Architecture with the IT manager of an organization
Which three statements are effective responses that relate to the IT manager’s concerns’? (Choose three.)
A. Improved collaboration tools improve the end-user experience and will make the IT manager more popular.
B. Initial costs may be higher, but comparing the Total Cost of Ownership over a five-year period will show that the Cisco product is less expensive.
C. A centralized Collaboration Architecture deployment will ease management and save money.
D. A fully-deployed Collaboration Architecture supports efficient training in a variety of ways
E. The Collaboration Architecture, by design, ensures the highest availability.
F. Collaboration tools improve upon ways in which corporations can enforce employee accountability.
Correct Answer: B,C,E

QUESTION 9
Which statement is an important selling point for Cisco against Avaya?
A. Cisco is well respected and is the proven leader in collaboration.
B. Cisco supports deskless workers
C. Cisco can offer a complete end-to-end solution
D. Cisco has acquired more than 100 innovative companies.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which three roles belong to an informal buying center that the account manager must be aware of? (Choose three)
A. Gatekeeper
B. Partner
C. Initiator
D. Seller
E. Buyer
F. Dealer
Correct Answer: A,C,E

QUESTION 11
Which statement about Cisco WebEx Meeting Center is true?
A. It is powered by Jabber XMPP and can be used for one-on-one or group chat and file transfers
B. It is an award-winning flagship product that simulates a traditional live meeting in an online environment
C. It displays life-size, remarkably clear video images, which provide a “face-to-face” meeting with remote customers, suppliers, and partners.
D. It is fully scalable, is delivered entirely over the public Internet, and is optimized for security, performance, and reliability.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Cisco Collaboration is expensive. This is a very common FUD statement. Which two are proven ways of handling this statement? (Choose two)
A. Cisco is trusted for delivering quality and reliable world class solutions, support, and services, hence its collaboration solution is expensive
B. Cisco is a proven vendor and its collaboration portfolio is very competitively priced when compared to similar vendors in the market
C. Cisco collaboration might demand higher CAPEX but it is worthwhile since OPEX will be reduced significantly during the life cycle
D. Cisco’s end-to-end solution saves money through centralized management and enhanced scalability and flexibility
E. Cisco has the most comprehensive collaboration portfolio and flexible delivery model offerings in the market at a the most affordable price
Correct Answer: B,C

QUESTION 13
Which two options are advantages of a Collaboration Architecture that are important from the Human Resource Managers viewpoint? (Choose two.)
A. 24-hour network support
B. Advanced collaboration tools improve upon ways in which corporations can enforce employee accountability.
C. The corporation gains increased redundancy in the communications network
D. Advanced collaboration applications provide multiple communication channels through which employees can communicate with one another
E. Emergency response is improved upon, which results in a safer work environment
Correct Answer: B,E

QUESTION 14
Which three statements describe Cisco Enterprise License Manager? (Choose three.)
A. It is centralized and free, and it manages licenses across multiple clusters through license management, reporting, and compliance systems.
B. It is an enterprise-wide management tool for all Cisco Collaboration licenses
C. It is available in Professional. Standard, and Entry Editions
D. It includes soft clients, applications server software, and licensing on a per-user basis
E. It enables customers to see whether they require additional licenses and how the purchased licenses are utilized.
Correct Answer: A,B,E

QUESTION 15
Who uses Cisco Show and Share and Cisco WebEx Social for gaining and sharing information?
A. Customer
B. Knowledge worker
C. Mobile worker and teleworker
D. Contact center agent
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which company stakeholder may ask questions relating to improving resource efficiency while maintaining regulatory compliance during evaluation of a new architecture or strategy?
A. Chief Financial Officer
B. Chief Information Officer
C. Chief Executive Officer
D. Vice President
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Which two of the following are concerns that an operations manager may have in making a decision on Cisco Collaboration? (Choose two.)
A. Fast adoption of organizational changes
B. How to engage with external suppliers quickly
C. Reliability of the company infrastructure
D. Go-to-market time of new products or services
E. Changing customer demands
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 18
Which statement correctly describes the features of the product?
A. Cisco WebEx Meeting Center Quick response tools, high-quality video, support locations where Internet access is regulated
B. Cisco WebEx Training Center: Visual attention indicator, integrated testing engine, breakout sessions
C. Cisco WebEx Support Center: High-quality video, multisession interface, integrated testing engine
D. Cisco Unified Meeting Place: Fully scalable, visual attention indicator, optimized for BYOD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
Which two customer statements present business ROI? 700-172 dumps (Choose two)
A. Cisco Collaboration helps us to increase the productivity of our sales force and to gain new revenue streams through new customers
B. Cisco Telepresence can integrate with our existing video infrastructure
C. With Cisco Collaboration, we will engage quicker with third-party suppliers and will shorten goto-market time for innovative products globally
D. With Cisco Collaboration, we can deploy Extension Mobility, which will allow employees to “touchdown” at any workspace
E. A Cisco Collaboration Architecture will improve our company’s morale
Correct Answer: A,C

QUESTION 20
Mobile workers and teleworkers do not have direct access to coworkers, but they must engage with them regularly.
Which three collaboration tools benefit these workers’? (Choose three.)
A. Cisco Jabber
B. Cisco Video Conferencing
C. Cisco Emergency Responder
D. Cisco Unified Contact Center Express
E. Cisco Unified Communications
Correct Answer: A,B,E

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High Quality Cisco CCNA 200-125 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which command can you enter to route all traffic that is destined for 192.168.0.0/20 to a specific interface?
A. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.240.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
B. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
C. router(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
D. router(config)#ip route 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.0 GigabitEthernet0/1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which command can you enter to verify that a 128-bit address is live and responding?
A. traceroute
B. telnet
C. ping
D. show ipv6
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which component of a routing table entry represents the subnet mask?
A. routing protocol code
B. prefix
C. metric
D. network mask
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What is the correct command for floating static ipv6 route?
A. ipv6 route 2001:DB8::/32 serial 2/0 201
B. ipv6 route 2001:DB8::/32 serial 2/0 1
C. N/A
D. N/A
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
Scenario
Refer to the topology. Your company has decided to connect the main office with three other remote branch offices using point-to-point serial links. 200-125 dumps
You are required to troubleshoot and resolve OSPF neighbor adjacency issues between the main office and the routers located in the remote branch offices.
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
200-125 dumps
An OSPF neighbor adjacency is not formed between R3 in the main office and R5 in the Branch2 office. What is causing the problem?
A. There is an area ID mismatch.
B. There is a PPP authentication issue; a password mismatch.
C. There is an OSPF hello and dead interval mismatch.
D. There is a missing network command in the OSPF process on R5.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What routing protocol use first-hand information?
A. link-state
B. distance-vector
C. path-vector
D. other
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three.)
A. It uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection.
B. The connection is established before data is transmitted.
C. It ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.
D. It supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP.
E. It requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted.
F. It uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection.
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Each of these four switches has been configured with a hostname, as well as being configured to run RSTP. No other configuration changes have been made. 200-125 dumps Which three of these show the correct RSTP port roles for the indicated switches and interfaces? (Choose three.)
A. SwitchA, Fa0/2, designated
B. SwitchA, Fa0/1, root
C. SwitchB, Gi0/2, root
D. SwitchB, Gi0/1, designated
E. SwitchC, Fa0/2, root
F. SwitchD, Gi0/2, root
Correct Answer: ABF

QUESTION 9
What are two enhancements that OSPFv3 supports over OSPFv2? (Choose two.)
A. It requires the use of ARP.
B. It can support multiple IPv6 subnets on a single link.
C. It supports up to 2 instances of OSPFv3 over a common link.
D. It routes over links rather than over networks.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 10
What will be the result if the following configuration commands are implemented on a Cisco switch?
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security
Switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the startup-configuration file.
B. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the running-configuration file.
C. A dynamically learned MAC address is saved in the VLAN database.
D. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the startup-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
E. Statically configured MAC addresses are saved in the running-configuration file if frames from that address are received.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Which two components are used to identify a neighbor in a BGP configuration? (Choose two.)
A. autonomous system number
B. version number
C. router ID
D. subnet mask
E. IP address
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
Which route source code represents the routing protocol with a default administrative distance of 90 in the routing table?
A. S
B. E
C. D
D. R
E. O
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Assuming that the entire network topology is shown, what is the operational status of the interfaces of R2 as indicated by the command output shown?
A. One interface has a problem.
B. Two interfaces have problems.
C. The interfaces are functioning correctly.
D. The operational status of the interfaces cannot be determined from the output shown.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
On which options are standard access lists based?
A. destination address and wildcard mask
B. destination address and subnet mask
C. source address and subnet mask
D. source address and wildcard mask
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 15
–Router R1 connects the main office to internet, and routers R2 and R3 are internal routers –NAT is enabled on Router R1 –The routing protocol that is enabled between Rl, R2 and R3 is RIPv2 –R1 sends default route into RIPv2 for internal routers to forward internet traffic to R1 –Serverl and Server 2 are placed in VLAN 100 and 200 respectively, and are still running on stick Configuration with router R2. 200-125 dumps You have console access on Rl, R2, R3 and L2SW1 devices. Use only show commands to troubleshoot the issues.
200-125 dumps
Users in the main office complain that they are unable to reach internet sites. You observe that internet traffic that is destined towards ISP router is not forwarded correctly on Router R1.
What could be an issue?
Ping to Internet server shows the following results from R1:
Rl#ping 209.165.200.225
Type escape sequence to abort.
Sending 5,100-byte ICMP Echos to 209.165.200.225, timeout is 2 seconds:
…..
Success rate is 0 percent (0/5)
A. The next hop router address for the default route is incorrectly configured.
B. Default route pointing to ISP router is not configured on Router R1.
C. Default route pointing to ISP router is configured with AD of 225.
D. Router R1 configured as DHCP client is not receiving default route via DHCP from ISP router.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Users have been complaining that their Frame Relay connection to the corporate site is very slow. The network administrator suspects that the link is overloaded.
200-125 dumps
Based on the partial output of the Router# show frame relay pvc command shown in the graphic, which output value indicates to the local router that traffic sent to the corporate site is experiencing congestion?
A. DLCI = 100
B. last time PVC status changed 00:25:40
C. in BECN packets 192
D. in FECN packets 147
E. in DE packets 0
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 17
Requirement to configure DHCP binding ( choose two)
A. DHCP pool
B. ip address
C. Hardware address
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 18
Users on the 172.17.22.0 network cannot reach the server located on the 172.31.5.0 network. The network administrator connected to router Coffee via the console port, issued the show ip route command, and was able to ping the server.
200-125 dumps
Based on the output of the show ip route command and the topology shown in the graphic, what is the cause of the failure?
A. The network has not fully converged.
B. IP routing is not enabled.
C. A static route is configured incorrectly.
D. The FastEthernet interface on Coffee is disabled.
E. The neighbor relationship table is not correctly updated.
F. The routing table on Coffee has not updated.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
Refer to the exhibit.
200-125 dumps
Based on the information given, which switch will be elected root bridge and why? 200-125 dumps
A. Switch A, because it has the lowest MAC address
B. Switch A, because it is the most centrally located switch
C. Switch B, because it has the highest MAC address
D. Switch C, because it is the most centrally located switch
E. Switch C, because it has the lowest priority
F. Switch D, because it has the highest priority
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 20
Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?
A. enable cdp
B. cdp enable
C. cdp run
D. run cdp
Correct Answer: C

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Best Microsoft MCSD 70-488 dumps exam files Qs & As (1-10)

QUESTION 1
You need to ensure that the CourierMobile app determines whether the franchisee owns the account.
What should you do?
A. Use OAuth and App only security. Request the Read right from the http://sharepoint/content/sitecollection/web/list scope URI.
B. Use OAuth and App+User security. Request the Read right from the http://sharepoint/content/sitecollection scope URI.
C. Use SPSecurity.RunWithElevatedPrivileges to connect to SharePoint and read from the Accounts list in the site collection.
D. Use the SharePoint user credentials of the bicycle messenger to connect to SharePoint and read from the Accounts list in the site collection.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A franchisee deletes several sites from the franchise’s site collection. The franchisee site collection administrator must recover the sites.
You need to instruct the franchisee site collection administrator on how to access the page to recover the sites.
What should the site collection administrator do to get to the appropriate page?
A. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the second stage Recycle Bin settings to 100 percent.
B. Select General Settings for the Web Application in Central Administration and change the first stage Recycle Bin settings to 0 days.
C. Select the Recycle Bin on the Site Settings page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
D. Select the Recycle Bin in the Quick Launch page. Choose the appropriate sites and select Restore Selection.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that the CloudManager app can write route progress check-ins to the courier’s microfeed.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Ensure that SP.RequestExecutor.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
B. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Manage permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
C. Ensure that the MySite host is provisioned for each franchisee.
D. Ensure that all cookies are made available between the My Site and the CloudManager app domain.
E. Ensure that the CloudManager app has the Write permission request scoped to the URL for the franchisee’s My Site.
F. Ensure that SP.UserProfiles.js can be accessed in a browser window with no errors.
Correct Answer: ABDE

Explanation:
* From scenario:
/ Business Requirements
The FranchiseMonitor app must allow a Franchise employee to upload Appointments.csv to a SharePoint document library in each Franchisee site collection, and send Appointments.csv to the CloudManager app.
/ The FranchiseMonitor app must display the courier’s location on the bicycle courier’s microfeed on the SharePoint farm if the courier has remained stationary for more than three minutes. 70-488 dumps
/ The CloudManager app must implement business logic that parses Appointments.csv and geo- location data and sends Appointments or Appointment cancellations to the CourierMobile app.

QUESTION 4
You need to implement the custom claims provider for the SharePoint farm.
Which code segments should you implement? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
70-488 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
E. Option E
F. Option F
Correct Answer: BDF

Explanation:
* From scenario:
MyClaimsProvider.es
70-488 dumps
QUESTION 5
You need to set the appropriate permissions for the franchise employees’ customer list and customer subsite access.
What should you do?
A. Add franchise employees to the Members group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the franchisee subsite level. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
B. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customers list. Add franchise employees to the custom role at the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the subsite level. Add franchise owners to the Owners group at the subsite level.
C. Create a custom role definition in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection with Limited Access to the Customer list. Add franchise employees to the custom role. Allow full inheritance of the role definition and permissions at the site level.
D. Add franchise employees to the Visitors group in the CorporateSiteCollection site collection. Break inheritance at the franchisee subsite level. Create a custom role definition at the subsite level with Full Control permissions. Add franchise employees to the custom role.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You need to create rules in the CourierMobile app based on the ItemType that arrives.
For which ItemTypes should you test? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Tent
B. IPM.Note
C. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Request
D. IPM.Appointment
E. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Cancelled
F. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Pos
G. IPM.Schedule.Meeting.Neg
Correct Answer: DE

Explanation:
From scenario:
* The CourierMobile app receives Microsoft Outlook appointments (D) and Outlook appointment cancellations (E) from the CloudManager app. The appointments include the address of the location for pick-up or drop-off.

QUESTION 7
You need to meet the requirements for data storage for the CourierMobile app and the CloudMananger app.
Which technologies should you use? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Windows Azure SQL Database
B. SharePoint content database
C. Secure Store
D. SQL Server Express LocalDB
E. SharePoint list
Correct Answer: AD

Explanation:
A: SQL Azure in the cloud.
lightweight version of Express that has the same programmability features, but
D: LocalDB is a
it runs in user mode and has a fast, zero-configuration installation and a short list of prerequisites.
From scenario:
* CourierMobile App
The CourierMobile app must be able to capture more than 30 million data points of location data daily as they occur and upload the location data to the cloud when connected to the Internet. 70-488 dumps
* Cloudmanager App
/ The CloudManager app must elastically scale to capture courier location data as the number of bicycle couriers increases or decreases.
/ The CloudManager app must process bicycle courier location data from a data store capable of storing more than 30 million items.

QUESTION 8
You need to create a custom sign-in page to allow the users of the FranchiseMonitor app to authenticate against SharePoint and Margie’s Travel API.
What should you do?
A. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Sandbox solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named FedAuth. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
B. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Farm solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named FedAuth. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
C. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Farm solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named ASPXAUTH. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
D. Create an app for SharePoint. Set the trust level to Sandbox solution. Create an application page that writes a cookie named ASPXAUTH. Deploy the app and configure the Sign In Page URL in Central Administration Authentication Provider for the zone.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You receive an error when you deploy the app.
You need to resolve the error.
What should you do?
A. Create a deployment package and upload the app to the app catalog in SharePoint.
B. Enable side-loading of apps in the app manifest.
C. Deploy the app to https://contoso-my.sharepoint.com.
D. Enable side-loading of apps in the Visual Studio project properties.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
After deploying a solution, a code-based hotfix becomes available.
You need to deploy the hotfix.
What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. Use assembly binding redirection in the web application configuration file.
B. Increment the assembly file version of the assembly.
C. Increment the product version of the assembly.
D. Increment the assembly version of the assembly.
E. Use assembly binding redirection in the assembly policy file.
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:
A:Assembly versions are everywhere in SharePoint web.config files, web part definitions, workflow definitions, event receiver bindings the list goes on. In each case, the version number is absolutely required so that SharePoint can load the code to run at that time. If you update an assembly’s version, you have two choices to ensure your code can still be loaded:
/ Find and update every reference to the previous assembly version.
/ Use a binding redirect in the relevant.config file (e.g. web.config) to point to the new version of the assembly.
C: Assembly Version : This is the version number used by framework during build and at runtime to locate, link and load the assemblies. When you add reference to any assembly in your project, it is this version number which gets embedded. At runtime, CLR looks for assembly with this version number to load. But remember this version is used along with name, public key token and culture information only if the assemblies are strong-named signed. If assemblies are not strong-named signed, only file names are used for loading.
Incorrect:
not B: Assembly File Version : This is the version number given to file as in file system. It is displayed by Windows Explorer. Its never used by .NET framework or runtime for referencing.
From scenario:
* solution artifacts must adhere to industry best practices.
* Code based hot fixes must be deployed directly to the Global Assembly Cache on all SharePoint servers.
* Only one version of an assembly must be available at runtime.

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QUESTION 1
What are two advantages of employing an external router for inter-VLAN routing over an IEEE 802.1Q trunk link? (Choose two.)
A. Layer 3 functionality is not required on the switch.
B. The router facilitates communication between VLANs.
C. The single traffic path is optimized.
D. Latency is reduced as packets leave the switch.
E. Equal-Cost Multipath is supported.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 2
Which network device is used to identify and protect against unauthorized traffic and control access to legitimate business-critical data?
A. Stateful firewall
B. Stateless firewall
C. Router
D. Gateway
E. Switch
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which layer of the OSI model is associated with the reliable transmission of datagrams?
A. Datagram
B. Routing
C. Network
D. Data link
E. Transport
F. Transmission
G. Session
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 4
You are designing a network that provides FCoE, FabricPath, OTV, and Layer 3 functionalities. Which device can perform these functionalities?
A. Cisco Nexus 5500 Series Switches
B. Cisco Nexus 7000 Series Switches
C. Cisco Catalyst 6500 Series Switches
D. Cisco ASR 1001 Router
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which three IP addresses are examples of an RFC 1918 address? 640-911 dumps (Choose three.)
A. 172.16.3.1/24
B. 209.165.201.5/27
C. 209.165.200.225/27
D. 10.30.20.1/28
E. 192.168.200.50/24
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 6
Which two layers of the OSI model are combined in the Internet protocol suite application layer? (Choose two.)
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
E. 6
F. 7
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 7
What is the subnet mask for the network 172.16.0.0/21?
A. 255.255.0.0
B. 255.255.255.240
C. 255.255.248.0
D. 255.255.255.248
E. 255.255.248.240
F. 255.255.255.0
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which two options describe services that are provided by TCP? (Choose two.)
A. session multiplexing
B. EtherTypes identify destination services
C. connection-oriented
D. best-effort packet delivery
E. binary translation
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 9
In an IPv6 address, how many bits are used for the interface identifier?
A. 48
B. 16
C. 64
D. 128
E. 10
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Which two data center technologies are part of the IEEE 802.3 standard for Ethernet-based LANs? (Choose two.)
A. 40 Gb/s
B. 10 Gb/s
C. WLAN
D. Smart Grid
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 11
Ethernet 1/1 is assigned IP address 10.1.1.1 with subnet mask 255.255.255.0. 640-911 dumps Which configuration is used to configure EIGRP on a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch?
A. feature eigrp!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.0no shutdown!router eigrp 1network 10.1.1.0 0.0.0.255
B. feature eigrp!router eigrp 1autonomous-system 1!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24ip router eigrp 1no shutdown
C. router eigrp 1autonomous-system 1!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24ip router eigrp 1no shutdown
D. feature eigrp!interface Ethernet1/1ip address 10.1.1.1/24no shutdown!router eigrp 1network 10.1.1.00.0.0.255
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which command displays the Trunking Native Mode VLAN on port Ethernet 1/18?
A. show running-config switchport e1/18
B. show running-config e1/18 switchport
C. show interface e1/18
D. show interface e1/18 switchport
E. show interface e1/18 native
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
What is the result when two data transmissions are sent at the same time?
A. A collision occurs and both devices stop transmission and back off.
B. A collision occurs and one device retransmits.
C. All traffic continues to transmit.
D. A collision occurs and both devices resend transmissions.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
What two statements about functions within the OSI layer model are true? (Choose two.)
A. data at Layer 3 is referred to as a Frame
B. routing function happen at Layer 3
C. network layer is responsible for assigning a MAC address to NIC
D. ARP is a Layer 2 protocol
E. encryption of data happens at the Transport Layer
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 15
Which two options describe what can happen when devices are in the same broadcast domain? (Choose two.)
A. They are on the same VLAN and the same switch.
B. They are on different VLANs and the same switch.
C. They are on different VLANs and different switches.
D. They are on the same VLAN and different switches.
Correct Answer: AD

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QUESTION 1
A user is looking for the Application Data directory in their profile but cannot see it. Which of the following Control Panel options would correct this?
A. System
B. Display
C. User Accounts
D. Folder Options
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
Which Windows 7 command can stop a single process from the command-line?
A. Taskkill
B. Shutdown
C. Tasklist
D. DEL
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is the correct term for the local platform on which client virtual machines run?
A. Administrative shares
B. Guest OS
C. Cloud
D. Hypervisor
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
A technician wants to test connectivity with a remote device in the other room that appears to be having intermittent connectivity issues. 220-802 dumps
Which of the following command line tools will allow them to check connectivity over an extended period of time without having to retype commands?
A. NSLOOKUP
B. PING
C. NETSTAT
D. TRACERT
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
Which of the following is typically the MOST difficult security threat to remove?
A. Spyware
B. Virus
C. Trojan
D. Rootkit
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
A technician is having connectivity issues with a client\’s machine. The client\’s wall jack passed testing and the technician also uses a loopback to test the NIC on the PC and it also passed testing. Which of the following tools would a technician use to test between the wall jack and the PC?
A. Toner probe
B. Multimeter
C. Wireless locator
D. Cable tester
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A technician needs to sanitize a hard drive for reuse. Which of the following would be the EASIEST for the technician to perform?
A. Overwrite
B. Low level format
C. Destroy hard drive
D. Degaussing
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A company recently had a security breach and is now required to increase the security on their workstations. A technician has been tasked to harden all the workstations on the network. Which of the following should the technician do?
A. Enable Windows automatic updates
B. Enable screensaver required passwords
C. Enable MAC filtering
D. Enable wireless encryption
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Which of the following settings MUST be configured in order to turn on a VoIP phone?
A. PoE
B. Flow control
C. VPN
D. Duplex speed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A service technician is installing a second hard drive on a desktop PC running Windows 7. The second hard drive is the same make and model of the first hard drive. 220-802 dumps The technician would like to provide data redundancy. Which of the following should the technician use to accomplish this?
A. Disk Management
B. Device Manager
C. System Configuration
D. Data Sources
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
A user receives an email seemingly from the director of the company\’s IT department. The user however notices that the content of the email is asking for information specifically forbidden to be shared with anyone. This type of interaction is known as which of the following?
A. Phishing
B. Shoulder surfing
C. Malware
D. Spyware
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
An administrator is asked to review a file on a local drive. The file contains what appear to be multiple conversations from emails, chat sessions, and various word processing files that were accessed during the past several days. Ann, the user, advises the administrator this was not a file she had created. The file is MOST likely created by which of the following?
A. Malware
B. Phishing
C. Social engineering
D. Keylogger
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A user recently installed an application. Upon the next reboot, the system is displaying various errors relating to the system files and certain actions e.g. right-clicking no longer works. The user does not have time to reimage the computer, nor do they wish to remove and reinstall the application. Which of the following should the technician do FIRST?
A. Open up the command prompt and type SFC /SCANNOW
B. Open Task Manager and stop all running SERVICES processes
C. Open up MSCONFIG and remove the application from the start-up tab
D. Open a command prompt and type REGSVR32 SYSMAIN.DLL U
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Which of the following should a technician implement to prevent external contractors from physically plugging devices into the company\’s network jacks unless such jacks are designated for guest use?
A. Disable DHCP and assign a static IP address to each network device physically connected to the network.
B. Enable MAC address filtering across all network jacks and record the MAC address of guest devices.
C. Disable all switch ports when they are not utilized and enable them on an as needed basis.
D. Place guest network jacks in public areas and all other jacks in secure areas as needed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
A PC is running slower than usual. Which of the following tools would BEST diagnose the possible bottleneck?
A. CHKDSK
B. Device Manager
C. Task Scheduler
D. Task Manager
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
From which of the following tools can a technician locate the PID of an application?
A. Local Security Policy
B. MSCONFIG
C. Computer Management
D. Task Manager
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 17
A user states when they press certain letters on their laptop\’s keyboard, a number is displayed on the screen. 220-802 dumps Which of the following can the technician perform to resolve this issue?
A. Change the character mapping
B. Turn off number lock
C. Replace the keyboard
D. Update the keyboard drivers
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 18
Which of the following would be the BEST way to combat social engineering?
A. User education
B. Deny social networks through the firewall
C. Badges
D. Strong password usage
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
When cutting back the protective coating on CAT5 wiring, which of the following is the recommended tool?
A. Punchdown tool
B. Basic crimper
C. Wire strippers
D. Degausser
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
A technician is tasked with improving the security of a SOHO network. The office is comprised of a single wireless router located under the front desk where the office manager sits. All desktop computers are wired into the router which is configured with strong device credentials. Additionally, wireless is disabled on the router. Which of the following should the technician perform NEXT to improve the security of the SOHO network?
A. Disable the router\’s remote management feature.
B. Enable WPA2 wireless encryption.
C. Change the router\’s default admin name and password.
D. Place the router in a locked room.
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains a main office and a branch office. An Active Directory site exists for each office.
The domain contains two servers named Server1 and Server2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Both servers have the DHCP Server server role installed. Server1 is located in the main office site.
Server2 is located in the branch office site. Server1 provides IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the main office site.
Server2 provides IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the branch office site. You need to ensure that if either Server1 or Server2 are offline, the client computers can still obtain IPv4 addresses.
The solution must meet the following requirements:
The storage location of the DHCP databases must not be a single point of failure. Server1 must provide IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the branch office site only if Server2 is offline.
Server2 must provide IPv4 addresses to the client computers in the main office site only if Server1 is offline.
Which configuration should you use?
A. load sharing mode failover partners
B. a failover cluster
C. hot standby mode failover partners
D. a Network Load Balancing (NLB) cluster
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Your network contains one Active Directory domain. The domain contains two Hyper-V hosts named Host1 and Host2 that run Windows Server 2012 R2.
Host1 contains a virtual machine named VM1.
You plan to move VM1 to Host2. 70-412 dumps
You need to generate a report that lists any configuration issues on Host2 that will prevent VM1 from being moved successfully.
Which cmdlet should you use?
A. Move-VM
B. Test-VHD
C. Debug-VM
D. Compare-VM
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2.
You have a subscription to Windows Azure.
You need to register the Microsoft Azure Backup Agent on Server1.
What should you do first?
A. Install the Microsoft System Center 2012 Data Protection Manager (DPM) agent.
B. Create a backup vault.
C. Create Site Recovery vault.
D. Configure a passphrase for the Azure Backup Agent.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which permission should you assign on a CA to a group of users that you want to be able to respond to certificate requests but you do not want to provide them with the ability to change CA security settings?
A. Read
B. Issue And Manage Certificates
C. Manage CA
D. Request Certificates
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
You have an enterprise certification authority (CA) named CA1. You have a certificate template named UserAutoEnroll that is based on the User certificate template. Domain users are configured to autoenroll for UserAutoEnroll. A user named User1 has an email address defined in Active Directory. A user named User2 does not have an email address defined in Active Directory. You discover that User1 was issued a certificate based on UserAutoEnroll template automatically. A request by user2 for a certificate based on the UserAutoEnroll template fails. You need to ensure that all users can autoenroll for certificated based on the UserAutoEnroll template. Which setting should you configure from the properties on the UserAutoEnroll certificate template?
A. Issuance Requirements
B. Request Handling
C. Cryptography
D. Subject Name
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
Your company has a main office and a branch office. The main office is located in Detroit.
The branch office is located in Seattle.
The network contains an Active Directory domain named adatum.com. Client computers run either Windows 7 Enterprise or Windows 8 Enterprise.
The main office contains 1,000 client computers and 50 servers. The branch office contains 20 client computers.
All computer accounts for the branch office are located in an organizational unit (OU) named SeattleComputers. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to the SeattleComputers OU.
You need to configure BranchCache for the branch office.
Hot Area:
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Correct Answer:
70-412 dumps
QUESTION 7
You have a server named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2012 R2 and uses Windows Server Backup.
You need to identify whether the backups performed on Server1 support bare metal recovery. 70-412 dumps
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Get-OBMachineSetting
B. GetWBVSSBackupOption
C. Get-WBPolicy
D. Get-OBPolicy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Your organization is deploying a second Active Directory forest because a substantial number of users need to access a resource that requires significant changes to the Active Directory schema, which are not compatible with your current forest’s schema.
You want users in your forest to be able to access any resource in any domain in the new forest.
Which of the following should you do to accomplish this goal?
A. Configure a forest trust.
B. Configure an external trust.
C. Create a shortcut trust.
D. Configure name suffix routing.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You are employed as a network administrator at contoso.com.
Contoso.com has an active directory domain named contoso.com.
All servers on the contoso.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
Contoso.com has a server named server1,which is configured as a file server.
You have been instructed to enabled a feature that discovers and eradicates duplication within data without compromising its reliability or accuracy.
Which of the following actions should you take?
A. You should consider having the Data Deduplication feature enabled.
B. You should consider having the Storage Spaces feature enabled.
C. You should consider having the Storage Management feature enabled.
D. You should consider having the folder redirection feature enabled.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
You want to enable key archiving on a CA.
You need to issue a certificate from a specific template to the user who will recover private keys.
Which certificate template will you use as the basis for this certificate?
A. Kerberos authentication
B. Code signing
C. OCSP response signing
D. Key recovery agent
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You have a server named Server1. A Microsoft Azure Backup of Server1 is created automatically every day.
You rename Server1 to Server2. 70-412 dumps you discover that backups are no longer created in Azure.
You need to backup the server to Azure.
What should you do?
A. From the Azure Management Portal, upload the Server2 certificae as a management certificate.
B. On Server2, run the Start-OBRegistration cmdlet.
C. On Server2, run the Add-WBBackupTarget cmdlet.
D. From the Azure Management Portal, modify the configuration on the backup vault.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
You are employed as a senior network administrator at ABC.com.
ABC.com has an Active Directory domain named ABC.com.
All servers on the ABC.com network have Windows Server 2012 R2 installed.
ABC.com has two servers,named SERVER1 and SERVER2 which are configured in a two- node failover cluster.
Server1 includes a folder,named ABCAppData,which is configured as a Distributed File System (DFS) name space folder target.
After configuring another two nodes in the failover cluster, you are instructed to make sure that access to ABC AppData is highly available.
You also have to make sure that application data is replicated to ABCAppData via DFS replication.
Which following actions should you take ?
A. You should consider configuring a scale-out File Server
B. You should consider configuring the replication settings for the cluster
C. You should consider configuring a file server for general use
D. You should consider configuring the Quorum settings
Correct Answer: A

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